HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. What phase corresponds with the luteal phase?
- A. Menstrual phase
- B. Follicular phase
- C. Secretory phase
- D. Menstrual phase
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The luteal phase corresponds with the secretory phase. During the menstrual cycle, the luteal phase follows ovulation and is characterized by the development of the corpus luteum, secreting progesterone to prepare the endometrium for a potential pregnancy. The other choices, menstrual phase (A), follicular phase (B), and the repeated choice of menstrual phase (D) do not align with the luteal phase and its functions.
2. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of vaginitis EXCEPT?
- A. Vaginal itching and irritation
- B. Heavy vaginal bleeding
- C. Pain during coitus
- D. Painful urination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Vaginitis is characterized by symptoms such as vaginal itching, irritation, pain during coitus, and painful urination. However, heavy vaginal bleeding is not typically associated with vaginitis. Vaginal bleeding could be indicative of other conditions like cervical or endometrial issues, but it is not a common symptom of vaginitis.
3. Through which arteries does the blood supply to the external genitalia primarily occur?
- A. Femoral arteries
- B. Inguinal arteries
- C. Pudendal arteries
- D. Internal iliac arteries
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pudendal arteries. The pudendal arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the external genitalia. These arteries specifically provide blood flow to the perineum, including the external genitalia. Choice A, Femoral arteries, are not primarily responsible for supplying blood to the external genitalia. Choice B, Inguinal arteries, do not supply blood directly to the external genitalia. Choice D, Internal iliac arteries, are not the main suppliers of blood to the external genitalia.
4. Mrs. Banda is a patient at the ward with complaints of light menstrual periods, which occur at intervals greater than 35 days. Your diagnosis will be:
- A. Oligomenorrhea
- B. Menorrhagia
- C. Metrorrhagia
- D. Polymenorrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct diagnosis for Mrs. Banda's condition is Oligomenorrhea. Oligomenorrhea is characterized by light menstrual periods occurring at intervals longer than 35 days. Choice B, Menorrhagia, refers to abnormally heavy menstrual bleeding. Choice C, Metrorrhagia, is bleeding at irregular intervals, and Choice D, Polymenorrhea, involves menstrual cycles occurring at intervals shorter than 21 days.
5. Risk of endometrial hyperplasia is greatest in individuals who do not menstruate for at least _____ months and require immediate referral:
- A. 2 months
- B. 3 months
- C. 4 months
- D. 5 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: '4 months.' The risk of endometrial hyperplasia is highest in individuals who do not menstruate for at least 4 months. This prolonged exposure to unopposed estrogen can lead to endometrial hyperplasia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the risk is greatest after at least 4 months of not menstruating, not 2, 3, or 5 months.
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