what pathophysiological events occur sequentially in the development of atherosclerosis
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. What pathophysiological events occur sequentially in the development of atherosclerosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence of pathophysiological events in the development of atherosclerosis starts with arterial endothelium injury causing inflammation. This inflammation triggers the formation of foam cells by macrophages consuming low-density lipoprotein (LDL). Subsequently, smooth muscle grows over fatty streaks, creating fibrous plaques. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate chronological order of events in the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis.

2. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

3. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pale foot with no pulse suggests a compromised blood supply, indicating a potential vascular emergency. The nurse's immediate priority is to notify the healthcare provider to address the situation promptly. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot later could lead to serious complications due to the compromised blood supply, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this critical situation.

4. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

5. The nurse has been teaching a client with congestive heart failure about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple are good choices for a client with congestive heart failure who is learning about sodium restriction. Turkey is generally lower in sodium compared to cheese, and canned fruits like pineapple typically have lower sodium content. Choices A, C, and D are less suitable as they contain higher levels of sodium, such as cheese, cheeseburger, baked potato, mushroom pizza, and ice cream, which are not ideal for a client needing to restrict sodium intake.

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