HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. What is the most common cause of abortion in Zambia?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. HIV
- C. Ascariasis
- D. Malaria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Malaria is the most common cause of abortion in Zambia due to its significant impact on maternal health. Malaria can lead to severe complications during pregnancy, increasing the risk of spontaneous abortion. Tuberculosis (Choice A), HIV (Choice B), and Ascariasis (Choice C) are serious health conditions, but they are not typically identified as the primary cause of abortion in Zambia as malaria.
2. Which of the following is NOT a strategy for family planning?
- A. Integrating family planning services with other Reproductive Health programs
- B. Expanding access to family planning through non-public delivery systems
- C. Targeting family planning services to priority groups
- D. Expanding programs of immunization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Expanded programs of immunization are not considered a strategy for family planning. Immunization programs focus on preventing diseases through vaccines and are distinct from family planning strategies, which aim to help individuals and couples plan their desired family size and spacing of children. Choices A, B, and C are all valid strategies for family planning. Integrating family planning services with other reproductive health programs, expanding access to family planning through non-public delivery systems, and targeting family planning services to priority groups are common approaches to improve the availability and effectiveness of family planning services.
3. Which of the following are types of induced abortions?
- A. Therapeutic abortion
- B. Missed abortion
- C. Inevitable abortion
- D. Threatened abortion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, therapeutic abortion, which is a type of induced abortion performed for medical reasons. Missed abortion, inevitable abortion, and threatened abortion are types of spontaneous abortions, not induced abortions. Missed abortion refers to a non-viable pregnancy, inevitable abortion is a miscarriage that cannot be stopped, and threatened abortion is when there is bleeding during pregnancy without cervical dilation.
4. Which of the following tests is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease?
- A. Cervical excitation test
- B. Chadwick sign
- C. Jacquiners sign
- D. Palmers sign
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervical excitation test. The cervical excitation test is positive in pelvic inflammatory disease. This test involves pain or tenderness upon movement of the cervix, indicating inflammation of the pelvic organs. Chadwick sign (choice B) refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia due to increased vascularity and is not a test for PID. Jacquiners sign (choice C) and Palmers sign (choice D) are not recognized clinical signs or tests for PID, making them incorrect choices.
5. What is a cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta known as?
- A. Battledore insertion
- B. Placenta velamentosa
- C. Placenta accreta
- D. Vasa Praevia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A cord inserted to the very edge of the placenta is known as battledore insertion. This occurs when the cord is attached to the fetal membranes at the placental margin rather than directly to the placental tissue. Placenta velamentosa refers to the condition where the umbilical cord inserts into the fetal membranes before it reaches the placenta. Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta attaches too deeply into the uterine wall. Vasa Praevia is a condition where fetal blood vessels run across or near the internal cervical opening.
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