HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Polymenorrhoea is defined as:
- A. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 35 days
- B. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 35 days
- C. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 21 days
- D. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 21 days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Polymenorrhoea is defined as menstruation that occurs at intervals shorter than 21 days. Choice A is incorrect because it describes menstruation at intervals less than 35 days. Choice B is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 35 days. Choice D is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 21 days.
2. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) does not cause cold sores of the lips:
- A. True.
- B. False.
- C. Depends on the person.
- D. Not enough information.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) typically causes genital herpes, not cold sores on the lips. Cold sores on the lips are commonly caused by herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1). Therefore, the statement that HSV-2 causes cold sores of the lips is incorrect. Choice B, 'False,' is the correct answer. Choice A is incorrect because HSV-2 does not cause cold sores on the lips. Choice C, 'Depends on the person,' is incorrect as the cause of cold sores is predominantly linked to HSV-1. Choice D, 'Not enough information,' is also incorrect as this information is well-established in medical knowledge.
3. Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?
- A. Inspection of internal genitalia
- B. Inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall
- C. Palpation of the vagina and vaginal cervix by digital examination
- D. Rectal examination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pelvic examination involves the inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall. This is typically done to assess the health of the reproductive organs and screen for any abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while palpation and digital examination may be part of a pelvic exam, the specific focus on the cervix and vaginal wall is a key component that distinguishes it from other types of examinations.
4. Which group of the population does the Maternal nutrition component of IRH improve?
- A. Women and adolescent girls
- B. Pregnant women alone
- C. Pregnant women and all children under five
- D. All adolescents
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Women and adolescent girls. Maternal nutrition programs typically target women of reproductive age and adolescent girls to improve their health outcomes. Option B is incorrect because maternal nutrition initiatives extend beyond just pregnant women. Option C is incorrect because the focus is not on all children under five but specifically on women and adolescent girls. Option D is incorrect because the program does not target all adolescents, but rather women and adolescent girls.
5. The letter 'T' in the Acronym 'GATHER' denotes:
- A. Ask the client about themselves - particular needs, obstetric and medical history
- B. Tell the client about modern FP methods available, and discuss each in detail
- C. Help the client choose a method and repeat information regarding the chosen method if necessary
- D. Explain how to use the method - what, where, when, and how
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Tell the client about modern FP methods available, and discuss each in detail.' In the GATHER acronym, 'T' stands for providing information about modern family planning methods to the client and having a detailed discussion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the 'T' component in the GATHER approach. Choice A focuses more on gathering information from the client, choice C is about helping the client choose a method, and choice D is about explaining how to use the method, none of which align with the 'T' in GATHER.
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