Nursing Elites

1. Polymenorrhoea is defined as:

• A. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 35 days
• B. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 35 days
• C. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 21 days
• D. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 21 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polymenorrhoea is defined as menstruation that occurs at intervals shorter than 21 days. Choice A is incorrect because it describes menstruation at intervals less than 35 days. Choice B is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 35 days. Choice D is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 21 days.

2. Where does the ovum receive the sperm?

• A. Animal pole
• B. Vegetal pole
• C. Zona pellucida
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Zona pellucida.' The ovum receives the sperm at the zona pellucida, which is the glycoprotein layer surrounding the plasma membrane of the oocyte. This layer plays a crucial role in preventing polyspermy. Choices A and B, 'Animal pole' and 'Vegetal pole,' are incorrect as they refer to different regions of the egg and are not where the sperm fertilizes the ovum. Choice D, 'None of the above,' is incorrect as the sperm indeed interacts with the zona pellucida during fertilization.

3. What is the term used to describe the gestational sac surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube?

• A. A carneous mole.
• B. A hydatidiform mole.
• C. A vesicular mole.
• D. A chorionic mole.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a carneous mole. A carneous mole occurs when a gestational sac is surrounded by a blood clot and retained in the tube. Choice B, a hydatidiform mole, is incorrect as it refers to an abnormal pregnancy characterized by the presence of hydropic chorionic villi. Choice C, a vesicular mole, is also incorrect as it is another term for a complete hydatidiform mole. Choice D, a chorionic mole, is not a recognized medical term and is therefore incorrect.

4. What laboratory values are not typically elevated in a patient with PCOS?

• A. LH
• B. Androgens
• C. Estrogens
• D. Prolactin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prolactin. Prolactin levels are not typically elevated in patients with PCOS. Elevated LH and androgens are commonly seen in PCOS patients. While estrogen levels can vary in PCOS, they are not consistently low or high in all cases.

5. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is best for:

• A. Clients who do not wish to have any more children
• B. Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum
• C. Clients who want to wait before having a first or another child
• D. Clients with several sexual partners

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clients with a baby less than 6 months postpartum. Lactational Amenorrhoea Method (LAM) is a highly effective temporary family planning method that is recommended for women who have recently given birth and are breastfeeding. LAM works best when the baby is less than 6 months old, the mother is exclusively breastfeeding, and her menstrual periods have not resumed. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because LAM is specifically designed for postpartum women with infants less than 6 months old, focusing on the lactational infertility that occurs during exclusive breastfeeding.

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