what are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

2. A client was just taken off the ventilator after surgery and has a nasogastric tube draining bile-colored liquids. Which nursing measure will provide the most comfort to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing frequent oral care with a tooth sponge is the most appropriate nursing measure in this scenario. This helps maintain comfort and prevent dryness in clients with nasogastric tubes. Allowing the client to melt ice chips in the mouth may not address oral care needs effectively. Providing mints to freshen the breath is not the priority when the client needs oral care. Swabbing the mouth with glycerin swabs may not be as effective as performing thorough oral care with a tooth sponge.

3. A 4-year-old child falls off a tricycle and is admitted for observation. How can the nurse best facilitate the child's cooperation during the assessment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Engaging the child in blowing out the penlight simulates play and can reduce fear, helping with cooperation during the assessment. Choice A is not recommended as it may increase anxiety by separating the child from the parent. Choice B is not appropriate as it involves playing with a syringe, which may not be safe or suitable. Choice D is not ideal for a 4-year-old child as understanding organ functions may be beyond their developmental level.

4. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.

5. The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients in an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by peers may escalate the situation, potentially leading to violence or self-harm. Addressing the situation quickly helps prevent harm and de-escalates the conflict. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate risks that require urgent intervention compared to the potential danger of a conflict escalating to violence with the client exhibiting antisocial behavior.

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