what are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

2. During an acute exacerbation of asthma, what is the nurse's first action for a client experiencing this condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when managing an acute exacerbation of asthma is to administer a bronchodilator as prescribed. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve breathing in individuals experiencing an asthma exacerbation. Checking oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important but not the first action. Reassuring the client and encouraging deep breathing (Choice C) can be beneficial but should come after administering the bronchodilator. Providing emotional support to reduce anxiety (Choice D) is important but is not the initial priority in managing an acute exacerbation of asthma.

3. To auscultate for a carotid bruit, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To auscultate for a carotid bruit, the nurse should place the stethoscope at the base of the neck, near the carotid artery. A carotid bruit is an abnormal sound that indicates turbulent blood flow in the carotid artery, potentially due to arterial narrowing or atherosclerosis. Placing the stethoscope above the clavicle, over the sternum, or over the trachea would not provide the nurse with the optimal location to assess for carotid artery abnormalities.

4. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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