what are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

2. A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to place a mask on the client. This intervention is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like the flu, especially in a healthcare setting where the risk of transmission is high. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice C) and determining the client's blood pressure (Choice D) are not the immediate interventions needed for a 17-year-old reporting flu-like symptoms.

3. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An adolescent expressing 'life without purpose' after taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) may be indicating suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. The initial period of antidepressant treatment can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially in younger populations. Increased appetite (Choice A) is a common side effect of duloxetine and may not require immediate follow-up. Mood swings (Choice C) and insomnia (Choice D) are also possible side effects of the medication but are not as urgent as addressing suicidal ideation.

4. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above-knee amputation (AKA) and reports aching in his right foot. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescription for gabapentin. Gabapentin is used to treat phantom limb pain, which is common after amputations. Encouraging discussion about feelings of limb loss (choice A) is important for emotional support but does not address the physical pain. Teaching the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage (choice C) is not indicated for aching in the 'right foot' as described. Offering assistance to move to a quiet room to relax (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain.

5. A client presents with a suspected infection and has a fever of 102°F. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The immediate priority for a client with a suspected infection and fever is to take a blood culture before administering antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism and ensure appropriate treatment. Administering antipyretics or encouraging fluid intake are important but should come after obtaining the blood culture to avoid interfering with test results. Monitoring vital signs, although essential, is not the immediate priority compared to identifying the infectious agent.

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