NCLEX-PN
PN Nclex Questions 2024
1. Two staff nurses were considered for promotion to head nurse. The promotion is announced via a memo on the unit bulletin board. The nurse who was not promoted tells a friend, "Oh, well, I really didn't want the job anyway."? This is an example of:
- A. rationalization.
- B. denial.
- C. projection.
- D. compensation.
Correct answer: A.
Rationale: This is an example of rationalization, specifically the sour grapes form, where the individual convinces themselves that they didn't want something after realizing they couldn't have it. Rationalization is an unconscious form of self-deception involving making excuses. In this scenario, the nurse is rationalizing her disappointment by downplaying her desire for the promotion. Denial involves ignoring the existence of a situation, which is not demonstrated here. Projection involves blaming others unconsciously, which is also not present in this situation. Compensation is an attempt to offset a perceived weakness by emphasizing a strong point, which is not shown in the nurse's response.
2. The client is scheduled for a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis. Which medication should be kept available during the test?
- A. Atropine sulfate
- B. Furosemide
- C. Prostigmin
- D. Promethazine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a Tensilon test to check for Myasthenia Gravis, Atropine sulfate should be kept available as it is the antidote for Tensilon and is administered to manage cholinergic crises that may occur during the test. Atropine sulfate helps counteract the excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system caused by Tensilon. Furosemide (choice B) is a diuretic and not related to managing Tensilon-induced crises. Prostigmin (choice C) is used to treat Myasthenia Gravis itself, not for managing the effects of Tensilon. Promethazine (choice D) is an antiemetic and antianxiety agent, which is not necessary for a Tensilon test. Therefore, Atropine sulfate (choice A) is the correct medication to have available during a Tensilon test, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this context.
3. Which of the following post-operative diets is most appropriate for the client who has had a hemorrhoidectomy?
- A. High-fiber
- B. Low-residue
- C. Bland
- D. Clear-liquid
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear-liquid.' After a hemorrhoidectomy, the client is usually started on a clear-liquid diet to allow the intestines to rest and promote healing. This diet helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which is crucial for recovery. Stool softeners are often included in the plan to avoid constipation. Once the client tolerates the clear liquids well, they can progress to a regular diet. High-fiber diet (choice A) is beneficial in the later stages of recovery to prevent constipation but is not typically the initial post-operative diet. Low-residue diet (choice B) and bland diet (choice C) are not appropriate for this type of surgery as they may not provide the necessary post-operative care and support needed for healing.
4. To decrease a client's use of denial and increase the client's expression of feelings, what should the nurse do?
- A. Tell the client to stop using the defense mechanism of denial
- B. Positively reinforce each expression of feelings
- C. Instruct the client to express feelings
- D. Challenge the client each time denial is used
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate approach to decrease a client's use of denial and promote the expression of feelings is to positively reinforce each expression of feelings. This method helps the client feel supported and validated, encouraging them to continue expressing their emotions openly. Positively reinforcing the expression of feelings can help reduce the need for denial as the client learns that their emotions are acknowledged and accepted. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A of telling the client to stop using denial is too directive and may be ineffective. Instructing the client to express feelings (Choice C) lacks positive reinforcement, and challenging the client each time denial is used (Choice D) can create a confrontational environment that hinders therapeutic progress.
5. When assessing a client for risk of hyperphosphatemia, which piece of information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. A history of radiation treatment in the neck region
- B. A history of recent orthopedic surgery
- C. A history of minimal physical activity
- D. A history of the client's food intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a history of radiation treatment in the neck region. Previous radiation to the neck may have damaged the parathyroid glands, which are crucial for calcium and phosphorus regulation. This damage can lead to disruptions in phosphorus levels, increasing the risk of hyperphosphatemia. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to phosphorus regulation. Orthopedic surgery, minimal physical activity, and food intake are more closely associated with calcium levels rather than phosphorus regulation. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to focus on obtaining information about a history of radiation treatment in the neck region when assessing the risk of hyperphosphatemia in a client.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access