HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam Questions And Answers
1. Total Fertility Rate is at 6.2 births per woman in Zambia. This implies that:
- A. Zambian women will give birth to 6.2 children on average during their childbearing years.
- B. 6.2% of the time she will be pregnant during her childbearing years.
- C. 6.2% of her deliveries will not be successful.
- D. 6.2% of women will require medical intervention to become pregnant.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A Total Fertility Rate of 6.2 means that a woman will give birth to an average of 6.2 children during her childbearing years. The correct answer is A as it accurately reflects the concept of Total Fertility Rate. Choice B is incorrect as it misinterprets the concept by equating it to a percentage of time being pregnant. Choice C is incorrect as it does not relate to the Total Fertility Rate but rather to the success rate of deliveries. Choice D is incorrect as it introduces the idea of medical intervention, which is not directly related to the Total Fertility Rate.
2. What is included in the Quality of Care in reproductive health?
- A. Ensuring accessible services, privacy, confidentiality, and continuity of care.
- B. Providing reproductive health services only in urban areas.
- C. Ensuring that all women deliver in a hospital setting.
- D. Ensuring that reproductive health services are only provided by doctors.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Quality of care in reproductive health encompasses ensuring accessible services, privacy, confidentiality, and continuity of care. These elements are crucial in providing comprehensive and effective reproductive health services. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not adequately address the holistic approach required for quality reproductive health care. Providing services only in urban areas limits accessibility, mandating hospital deliveries may not be suitable for all women, and restricting services to doctors only disregards the importance of a multi-disciplinary approach in reproductive health care.
3. Which of the following is used to differentiate abdominal mass from pelvic mass on clinical examination?
- A. Size
- B. Site
- C. Margins
- D. Lower border
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The lower border is used to differentiate between an abdominal mass and a pelvic mass during clinical examination. The lower border of the mass provides important information about its location and origin. The size (Choice A) alone may not always clearly distinguish between abdominal and pelvic masses. The site (Choice B) and margins (Choice C) are also important factors, but they are not as specific in differentiating between abdominal and pelvic masses as the lower border.
4. What is the function of luteinizing hormone?
- A. Maintains the corpus luteum
- B. Ripens the Graafian follicle
- C. Prepares the breasts for lactation
- D. Produces regrowth of the endometrium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Luteinizing hormone is responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum after ovulation. This is crucial for the production of progesterone, which helps prepare the endometrium for implantation and supports early pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B is the function of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) which stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles, C is mainly regulated by prolactin, and D is primarily associated with estrogen and progesterone.
5. Amniocentesis deals with patterns of ______ in the amniotic fluid.
- A. Fingers
- B. DNA
- C. Chromosomes
- D. Proteins
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Amniocentesis is a prenatal test that involves examining chromosomes in the amniotic fluid to detect genetic abnormalities. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Chromosomes.' The other choices, such as 'Fingers,' 'DNA,' and 'Proteins,' do not accurately represent what is analyzed during an amniocentesis procedure and are unrelated to the genetic information obtained through this test.
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