Nursing Elites

1. During a well-baby check of a 7-month-old infant, the practical nurse notes an absence of babbling. Which focused assessment should the PN implement?

• A. Visual function.
• B. Auditory function.
• C. Cognitive function.
• D. Social development.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of babbling in a 7-month-old infant is a concerning auditory development milestone. Babbling is an early stage of language development that involves making various sounds. A lack of babbling could indicate a hearing impairment or other auditory issues. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on assessing the infant's auditory function to determine if further evaluation or intervention is necessary. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the absence of babbling specifically points towards a potential issue related to auditory function rather than visual, cognitive, or social development.

2. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

3. When should a mother introduce solid foods to her 4-month-old baby girl? The mother states, 'My mother says I should put rice cereal in the baby's bottle now.' The nurse should instruct the mother to introduce solid foods when her child exhibits which behavior?

• A. Stops rooting when hungry
• B. Opens mouth when food comes her way
• C. Awakens once for nighttime feedings
• D. Gives up a bottle for a cup

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Opens mouth when food comes her way.' This behavior indicates readiness to start trying solid foods. Infants should be introduced to solid foods based on developmental cues, such as showing an interest in food and the ability to accept it. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of readiness for solid foods. Stopping rooting when hungry is a reflex that may persist beyond the readiness for solids. Awakening for nighttime feedings is a normal behavior for a 4-month-old, and transitioning from a bottle to a cup is a later developmental milestone.

4. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Encourage fluid intake.
• B. Promote complete bed rest.
• C. Weigh the child daily.
• D. Administer vitamin supplements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Weighing the child daily is crucial in managing a child with acute glomerulonephritis as it helps in monitoring fluid retention, which is a key concern in this condition. Daily weight monitoring allows healthcare providers to assess changes in fluid status and adjust treatment accordingly. It is an essential component of the care plan to ensure the child's health status is closely monitored during the management of acute glomerulonephritis. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) is generally beneficial but may not be the priority in this case where fluid retention needs close monitoring. Promoting complete bed rest (Choice B) can be important but may not be the most critical intervention. Administering vitamin supplements (Choice D) may not directly address the immediate concerns related to fluid retention in acute glomerulonephritis.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin to a 4-year-old child with heart failure. The healthcare provider notes that the child’s heart rate is 70 beats per minute. What should the healthcare provider do next?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Recheck the heart rate in 30 minutes
• D. Administer half of the prescribed dose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric patients, digoxin administration is guided by the heart rate. If the child's heart rate is below the established threshold, which is typically 90-100 beats per minute in a 4-year-old, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider should be notified for further evaluation and instructions. Choice A is incorrect because administering the medication when the heart rate is low can lead to adverse effects. Rechecking the heart rate in 30 minutes (Choice C) may delay necessary intervention if the heart rate remains low. Administering half of the prescribed dose (Choice D) is not recommended without healthcare provider guidance.

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