Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin to a 4-year-old child with heart failure. The healthcare provider notes that the child’s heart rate is 70 beats per minute. What should the healthcare provider do next?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Recheck the heart rate in 30 minutes
• D. Administer half of the prescribed dose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric patients, digoxin administration is guided by the heart rate. If the child's heart rate is below the established threshold, which is typically 90-100 beats per minute in a 4-year-old, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider should be notified for further evaluation and instructions. Choice A is incorrect because administering the medication when the heart rate is low can lead to adverse effects. Rechecking the heart rate in 30 minutes (Choice C) may delay necessary intervention if the heart rate remains low. Administering half of the prescribed dose (Choice D) is not recommended without healthcare provider guidance.

2. A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child's oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Ask the mother if the child has had a runny nose
• B. Cleanse purulent exudate from the affected ear canal
• C. Apply a topical antibiotic to the periauricular area
• D. Provide parent education to prevent recurrence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child presenting with ear pain and fever, asking if the child has had a runny nose is crucial in assessing possible causes of an ear infection. Respiratory infections can lead to secondary ear infections, so exploring symptoms related to upper respiratory tract infections, like a runny nose, can help in the evaluation and management of the child's condition. Choice B is incorrect because cleansing purulent exudate should be done by a healthcare provider, not a nurse, and only if necessary. Choice C is incorrect because applying a topical antibiotic without proper evaluation and prescription is not within the nurse's scope of practice. Choice D is incorrect because while parent education may be necessary, addressing the immediate concern of evaluating possible causes of the ear pain and fever takes priority.

3. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage the client to drink water
• C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
• D. Reinforce the importance of diet and exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.

4. When reviewing the dietary guidelines for a child with nephrotic syndrome, which diet should the practical nurse reinforce with the parents?

• A. High protein.
• B. Low sodium.
• C. Low fat.
• D. High carbohydrate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct diet that the practical nurse should reinforce with the parents of a child with nephrotic syndrome is a low-sodium diet. This diet is crucial for managing fluid retention and reducing the risk of edema, which are common concerns in children with nephrotic syndrome.

5. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

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