Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

2. After observing a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate followed by two ounces of orange juice, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and feed the infant.
• B. Tell the mother to follow the iron drops with formula instead of orange juice.
• C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing in the next 30 minutes after the iron.
• D. Give positive feedback about the way she administered the sulfate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing positive feedback to the mother for correctly administering the iron supplements is essential as it reinforces proper medication administration practices. This encouragement can help build the mother's confidence and ensure that she continues to administer the supplements correctly in the future, promoting the infant's health and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no need to suggest altering the administration method, changing the liquid used, or restricting feeding immediately after administering the iron supplement. Giving positive feedback is the most appropriate action in this scenario to acknowledge the mother's correct administration technique.

3. A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain assistance in holding him to prevent injury.
• B. Observe him carefully.
• C. Call a CODE.
• D. Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.

4. What is the best response for the nurse when a 2-year-old boy begins to cry as the mother starts to leave?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two-year-olds usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse in this situation is to help the child understand that the separation is temporary. Waving bye-bye to mommy can be reassuring to the child and make the separation process easier. It acknowledges the child's feelings while providing a positive and comforting interaction. Choice A may distract the child temporarily but doesn't address the underlying issue of separation anxiety. Choice B is inaccurate as children may continue to cry even after the parent leaves. Choice C diminishes the child's emotions and doesn't offer a supportive approach.

5. A 5-year-old child with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the child’s white blood cell count is low. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer antibiotics as prescribed
• B. Place the child in protective isolation
• C. Encourage the child to eat a balanced diet
• D. Teach the parents about infection prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 5-year-old child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy and having a low white blood cell count is to place the child in protective isolation. This intervention helps reduce the risk of infection, which is crucial in this immunocompromised state. Protective isolation aims to limit the child's exposure to pathogens and promote their safety during a period of increased vulnerability to infections.

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