Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

2. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose for each administration, multiply the child's weight (25 kg) by the dose (300 mg/kg/24 hours) and divide by the number of doses per day (6, as doses are every 4 hours). This gives us (25 kg * 300 mg/kg / 24 hours) / 6 doses = 1875 mg. Therefore, the nurse should administer 1875 mg for each dose. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the correct calculation based on the weight and prescribed dose. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not derived from the correct dosage calculation. Choice D, 1500 mg, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate dosage calculation based on the weight of the child and the prescribed dose.

3. A 6-year-old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the legs and abdomen. The child is crying and states that the pain is unbearable. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Apply warm compresses to the painful areas
• B. Administer prescribed pain medication
• C. Encourage the child to drink fluids
• D. Monitor the child’s oxygen saturation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, pain management is a priority to alleviate the child's suffering. Administering the prescribed pain medication is crucial to address the severe pain experienced by the child. Warm compresses, encouraging fluid intake, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions but should follow the priority of pain management in this situation.

4. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.

5. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

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