Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

2. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
• B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
• C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
• D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

3. A 3-year-old child with a high fever and sore throat is brought to the clinic. The nurse observes that the child is drooling and has difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer antipyretic medication
• B. Prepare for emergency airway management
• C. Offer the child ice chips to suck on
• D. Assess the child’s hydration status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child with drooling, difficulty swallowing, high fever, and sore throat, the nurse should prioritize preparing for emergency airway management. These signs may indicate epiglottitis, a condition that can quickly obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory distress and potentially fatal outcomes if not managed promptly. Administering antipyretic medication (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Offering ice chips (Choice C) is contraindicated as the child has difficulty swallowing. Assessing hydration status (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the airway is at risk.

4. During a well baby visit, the parents explain that a soft bulge appears in the groin of their 4-month-old son when he cries or strains during stooling. The infant is scheduled for surgical repair of the inguinal hernia in two weeks. What should the parent be instructed to do if the hernia becomes incarcerated prior to the surgery?

• A. Use a rectal thermometer to strain during stooling.
• B. Gently manipulate the hernia for reduction.
• C. Offer oral electrolyte fluids for comfort.
• D. Give acetaminophen or aspirin for crying.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the case of an incarcerated inguinal hernia, gentle manipulation can sometimes help in reducing it before surgery. This action should be taken cautiously and immediately followed by seeking medical attention. It is important to note that attempting reduction should be done by a healthcare professional, and parents should be advised to seek urgent medical care if the hernia becomes incarcerated. Using a rectal thermometer to strain during stooling (Choice A) is not the correct approach for an incarcerated hernia and can worsen the condition. Offering oral electrolyte fluids for comfort (Choice C) or giving acetaminophen or aspirin for crying (Choice D) are not appropriate interventions for an incarcerated hernia and may delay necessary medical treatment.

5. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

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