Nursing Elites

1. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

2. A mother brings her 3-month-old infant to the clinic, concerned about frequent vomiting after feeding. The practical nurse (PN) suspects gastroesophageal reflux (GER). Which recommendation should the PN provide to the mother?

• A. Feed the infant in a prone position.
• B. Provide larger, less frequent feedings.
• C. Keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding.
• D. Offer only formula thickened with rice cereal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct recommendation for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux (GER) in infants is to keep the infant upright for 30 minutes after feeding. This position helps prevent the backflow of stomach contents, alleviating symptoms of reflux. Placing the infant in a prone position or providing larger, less frequent feedings may worsen symptoms by increasing the likelihood of regurgitation. Offering only formula thickened with rice cereal is not the first-line intervention for GER and should not be recommended initially.

3. After observing a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate followed by two ounces of orange juice, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Suggest placing the iron drops in the orange juice and feed the infant.
• B. Tell the mother to follow the iron drops with formula instead of orange juice.
• C. Instruct the mother to feed the infant nothing in the next 30 minutes after the iron.
• D. Give positive feedback about the way she administered the sulfate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing positive feedback to the mother for correctly administering the iron supplements is essential as it reinforces proper medication administration practices. This encouragement can help build the mother's confidence and ensure that she continues to administer the supplements correctly in the future, promoting the infant's health and well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no need to suggest altering the administration method, changing the liquid used, or restricting feeding immediately after administering the iron supplement. Giving positive feedback is the most appropriate action in this scenario to acknowledge the mother's correct administration technique.

4. A 10-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse notes that the child has edema and elevated blood pressure. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed
• B. Monitor the child’s urine output
• C. Elevate the child’s legs to reduce edema
• D. Restrict the child’s fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with acute glomerulonephritis presenting with edema and elevated blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed. Managing blood pressure is essential to prevent further complications associated with the condition, such as worsening kidney function and cardiovascular strain. Monitoring urine output is important but not the priority over managing elevated blood pressure. Elevating the child's legs may help with edema but addressing the elevated blood pressure takes precedence. Fluid intake restriction may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the immediate priority when managing acute glomerulonephritis with edema and hypertension.

5. The nurse provides information about the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine to the mother of a 14-year-old adolescent who came to the clinic this morning complaining of menstrual cramping. Which explanation should the nurse provide to support administering the HPV vaccine to the adolescent at this visit?

• A. Use of protective barriers during sexual activity prevents most strains of HPV infection
• B. Most adolescents are not honest about being sexually active
• C. Not all strains of HPV will be covered if given at a later date
• D. Immunity must be established to prevent future HPV infection and the risk for cervical cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering the HPV vaccine helps establish immunity before potential exposure to the virus, reducing the risk of HPV infection and subsequent development of cervical cancer. It is recommended to vaccinate adolescents before they become sexually active for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because while protective barriers can reduce the risk, they do not prevent all strains of HPV. Choice B is incorrect and judgmental as it assumes dishonesty without providing relevant information about HPV vaccination. Choice C is incorrect as it downplays the importance of vaccination by suggesting that not all strains are necessary to cover, which is not the case in preventing HPV-related diseases.

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