Nursing Elites

1. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?

• A. Clear nasal discharge.
• B. Dry, hacking cough.
• C. Tugging at the ear.
• D. Sore throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.

2. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

3. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

4. The heart rate for a 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has steadily decreased over the last few hours, now it's 76 bpm, the previous reading 4 hours ago was 110 bpm. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%.
• B. RR of 25 breaths/minute.
• C. Urine output 20 mL/hr.
• D. BP 70/40.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. A decrease in blood pressure may suggest poor cardiac output and compromised perfusion, requiring urgent medical attention. The other findings (oxygen saturation of 94%, RR of 25 breaths/minute, and urine output of 20 mL/hr) are within normal ranges for a 3-year-old and do not indicate immediate deterioration of the heart defect.

5. A 10-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse notes that the child has edema and elevated blood pressure. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed
• B. Monitor the child’s urine output
• C. Elevate the child’s legs to reduce edema
• D. Restrict the child’s fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with acute glomerulonephritis presenting with edema and elevated blood pressure, the priority action for the nurse is to administer antihypertensive medication as prescribed. Managing blood pressure is essential to prevent further complications associated with the condition, such as worsening kidney function and cardiovascular strain. Monitoring urine output is important but not the priority over managing elevated blood pressure. Elevating the child's legs may help with edema but addressing the elevated blood pressure takes precedence. Fluid intake restriction may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the immediate priority when managing acute glomerulonephritis with edema and hypertension.

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