Nursing Elites

1. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?

• A. Clear nasal discharge.
• B. Dry, hacking cough.
• C. Tugging at the ear.
• D. Sore throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.

2. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.

3. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

4. A male adolescent who is newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder receives a prescription for an anticonvulsant. Which statement indicates the client is at risk for non-compliance with life-long medication management?

• A. I hope I will be able to drive while taking these pills.
• B. My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills.
• C. I don't want my parents monitoring my medications.
• D. I will take the pills at home so others will not see me.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The statement 'My friends will think I am a freak if I take these pills' indicates concerns about peer perception, which can lead to non-compliance in adolescents. Peer pressure and fear of social stigma can significantly impact medication adherence in this age group. Option B is the most concerning response as it reflects the client's worry about how others perceive him for taking medication, potentially leading to non-compliance due to social pressures. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address societal perception or peer pressure, making them less likely to impact the client's medication adherence negatively.

5. A 14-year-old adolescent with a history of substance abuse is brought to the emergency department by the parents, who suspect that the adolescent has relapsed. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening
• B. Discuss treatment options with the parents
• C. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the adolescent
• D. Administer a medication to reverse the effects of the substance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority action should be to obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening. This step is crucial in identifying the substances involved in the relapse, which will guide appropriate treatment strategies. By knowing the specific substances, healthcare providers can tailor treatment plans effectively. Establishing a therapeutic relationship and discussing treatment options come after obtaining necessary diagnostic information to ensure a comprehensive care plan. Administering a medication to reverse substance effects is not the initial priority; identification of the substances through toxicology screening should precede any treatment intervention.

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