Nursing Elites

1. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?

• A. Clear nasal discharge.
• B. Dry, hacking cough.
• C. Tugging at the ear.
• D. Sore throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.

2. Following admission for cardiac catheterization, the nurse is providing discharge teaching to the parents of a 2-year-old toddler with tetralogy of Fallot. What instruction should the nurse give the parents if their child becomes pale, cool, and lethargic?

• A. Encourage oral electrolyte solution intake
• B. Assist the child to a recumbent position
• C. Contact their healthcare provider immediately
• D. Provide a quiet time by holding or rocking the toddler

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If a child with tetralogy of Fallot becomes pale, cool, and lethargic, these symptoms may indicate a hypoxic episode or worsening condition. It is crucial to contact the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management to ensure the child's safety and well-being. Option A is incorrect because electrolyte solution intake is not the immediate action needed for these symptoms. Option B is incorrect as positioning alone may not address the underlying issue. Option D is incorrect as providing a quiet time is not appropriate if the child is experiencing concerning symptoms that require prompt medical attention.

3. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

4. When should the surgical correction of hypospadias in a newborn infant typically be done?

• A. Repair should be done by one month to prevent bladder infection.
• B. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
• C. Repairs typically should be done before the child is potty trained.
• D. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surgical repairs for hypospadias are typically recommended to be performed before the child is potty trained. This timing helps in avoiding complications, ensures better outcomes, and makes the surgical process smoother. Early correction also minimizes the psychological impact on the child regarding genital differences and can improve long-term psychological well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because repairing hypospadias at one month to prevent bladder infection, after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra, or delaying the repair until school age to reduce castration fears are not the standard recommendations. The optimal timing for surgical correction is before the child is potty trained to achieve the best results and psychological outcomes.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. The nurse obtained an apical heart rate of 128 bpm, which is within the expected range for a 2-year-old child. Therefore, there is no immediate concern to withhold the scheduled dose of digoxin. Determining the pulse deficit is not necessary as the heart rate is appropriate. Calculating the safe dose range is not needed as the current dose is within the therapeutic range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level may be indicated later for monitoring but is not urgent based on the heart rate assessment. Administering the scheduled dose of digoxin is the correct action at this time.

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