Nursing Elites

1. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?

• A. Clear nasal discharge.
• B. Dry, hacking cough.
• C. Tugging at the ear.
• D. Sore throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.

2. A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?

• A. Apply cold packs to painful areas.
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• C. Administer high doses of vitamin C.
• D. Provide low-calorie meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is crucial in managing vaso-occlusive crises in patients with sickle cell anemia. Dehydration can worsen these crises, so adequate hydration is essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Applying cold packs to painful areas may exacerbate vaso-occlusive crises by causing vasoconstriction. Administering high doses of vitamin C is not directly indicated for vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia. Providing low-calorie meals is not the priority during a vaso-occlusive crisis; maintaining adequate nutrition is important, but hydration takes precedence in this situation.

3. The mother of a 14-year-old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. I will ask the HCP for a psychiatric consult for your child
• B. This type of acting out behavior is normal for adolescents
• C. It is important to focus on your child's needs at this difficult time
• D. A reaction of anger is your child's attempt to cope with this loss

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as a coping mechanism helps validate their feelings and can open a dialogue for further support.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin to a 4-year-old child with heart failure. The healthcare provider notes that the child’s heart rate is 70 beats per minute. What should the healthcare provider do next?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Recheck the heart rate in 30 minutes
• D. Administer half of the prescribed dose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric patients, digoxin administration is guided by the heart rate. If the child's heart rate is below the established threshold, which is typically 90-100 beats per minute in a 4-year-old, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider should be notified for further evaluation and instructions. Choice A is incorrect because administering the medication when the heart rate is low can lead to adverse effects. Rechecking the heart rate in 30 minutes (Choice C) may delay necessary intervention if the heart rate remains low. Administering half of the prescribed dose (Choice D) is not recommended without healthcare provider guidance.

5. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.

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