HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. A 4-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of ear pain and fever. The practical nurse suspects otitis media. Which symptom supports this suspicion?
- A. Clear nasal discharge.
- B. Dry, hacking cough.
- C. Tugging at the ear.
- D. Sore throat.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tugging at the ear is a common symptom in children with otitis media. It often indicates discomfort or pain in the ear, suggesting inflammation or infection in the middle ear. This behavior is frequently observed in young children who are unable to express their discomfort verbally, making it a significant clinical indicator for otitis media in this age group. Clear nasal discharge (Choice A) is more indicative of a cold or allergies, while a dry, hacking cough (Choice B) is not typically associated with otitis media. Although a sore throat (Choice D) can sometimes accompany ear infections, tugging at the ear is a more specific and reliable symptom in this case.
2. A 10-year-old child is brought to the emergency department after falling from a bicycle and hitting their head. The nurse notes that the child is drowsy and has a headache. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Perform a full neurological assessment
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Allow the child to rest quietly
- D. Check the child's immunization status
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a child who has fallen and hit their head, presenting with drowsiness and headache, the priority action for the nurse is to perform a full neurological assessment. This is crucial to evaluate the extent of the head injury and monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which could indicate a more severe traumatic brain injury. Administering pain medication or allowing the child to rest quietly are not appropriate initial actions without first assessing the neurological status. Checking the child's immunization status is important for overall health but is not the priority in this acute situation.
3. The mother of a 14-year-old who had a below-the-knee amputation for osteosarcoma tells the nurse that her child is angry and blaming her for allowing the amputation to occur. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. I will ask the HCP for a psychiatric consult for your child
- B. This type of acting out behavior is normal for adolescents
- C. It is important to focus on your child's needs at this difficult time
- D. A reaction of anger is your child's attempt to cope with this loss
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acknowledging the child's anger as a coping mechanism helps validate their feelings and can open a dialogue for further support.
4. During a follow-up clinical visit, a mother tells the nurse that her 5-month-old son, who had surgical correction for tetralogy of Fallot, has rapid breathing, often takes a long time to eat, and requires frequent rest periods. The infant is not crying while being held, and his growth is in the expected range. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Stimulate the infant to cry to produce cyanosis
- B. Auscultate the heart and lungs while holding the infant
- C. Evaluate the infant for failure to thrive
- D. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Auscultating the heart and lungs while the infant is held is the most appropriate intervention to assess his current condition. This action allows the nurse to gather important information regarding the cardiovascular and respiratory status of the infant, which is crucial in evaluating his post-surgical recovery and overall well-being. Option A is incorrect as stimulating the infant to cry intentionally is not necessary and could cause distress. Option C is incorrect as the infant's growth is within the expected range, indicating no signs of failure to thrive. Option D is incorrect as obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram is not the initial intervention needed in this situation; assessing the heart and lungs through auscultation is more immediate and informative.
5. A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a vaso-occlusive crisis. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?
- A. Apply cold packs to painful areas.
- B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
- C. Administer high doses of vitamin C.
- D. Provide low-calorie meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is crucial in managing vaso-occlusive crises in patients with sickle cell anemia. Dehydration can worsen these crises, so adequate hydration is essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Applying cold packs to painful areas may exacerbate vaso-occlusive crises by causing vasoconstriction. Administering high doses of vitamin C is not directly indicated for vaso-occlusive crises in sickle cell anemia. Providing low-calorie meals is not the priority during a vaso-occlusive crisis; maintaining adequate nutrition is important, but hydration takes precedence in this situation.
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