Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dark-colored urine
• B. Mild periorbital edema
• C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.

2. A child with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with respiratory distress. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?

• A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
• B. Limit fluid intake.
• C. Provide a high-fat diet.
• D. Encourage bed rest only.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering bronchodilators as prescribed is crucial for managing respiratory distress in children with cystic fibrosis. Bronchodilators help to open the airways, facilitating easier breathing for the child. Limiting fluid intake, providing a high-fat diet, or encouraging bed rest only are not appropriate interventions for respiratory distress associated with cystic fibrosis. Limiting fluid intake could worsen dehydration, a high-fat diet is not recommended due to pancreatic insufficiency in cystic fibrosis, and bed rest alone does not address the respiratory distress.

3. The nurse is assessing a 4-month-old infant who has just received routine immunizations. The mother reports that the baby has been fussy and has a low-grade fever since the immunizations. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. These are common side effects and should resolve within a few days
• B. Your baby may be having an allergic reaction to the immunizations
• C. You should bring your baby to the clinic immediately for evaluation
• D. You should give your baby aspirin to help with the fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is to reassure the mother that fussiness and low-grade fever are common side effects of immunizations in infants and should resolve within a few days. It is essential to educate the mother about these expected reactions to alleviate her concerns. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to immunizations usually present with more severe symptoms such as difficulty breathing or swelling. Choice C is not warranted unless there are concerning symptoms present. Choice D is inappropriate as aspirin is contraindicated in infants due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.

4. A child with a fever of 39°C (102.2°F) and a sore throat is brought to the clinic. The practical nurse suspects the child has streptococcal pharyngitis. Which diagnostic test should the practical nurse prepare the child for?

• A. Rapid antigen detection test.
• B. Throat culture.
• C. Complete blood count (CBC).
• D. Chest X-ray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid antigen detection test is the appropriate diagnostic test for suspected streptococcal pharyngitis. This test is commonly used due to its quick results, helping in the prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment of the condition. It specifically detects the presence of streptococcal antigens in the throat, aiding in confirming the diagnosis and guiding the healthcare provider in determining the most suitable treatment plan. Throat culture (Choice B) is a confirmatory test but is not as rapid as the rapid antigen detection test. Complete blood count (Choice C) and Chest X-ray (Choice D) are not specific tests for streptococcal pharyngitis and would not aid in confirming the diagnosis.

5. The caregiver is caring for a 10-year-old child with a history of frequent ear infections. The parents are concerned about their child’s hearing and speech development. What is the caregiver’s best response?

• A. Let’s schedule a hearing test and refer to a speech therapist if needed
• B. Most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays
• C. There is no need to worry unless the infections persist into adolescence
• D. Your child’s hearing and speech should be normal by now

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate response for the caregiver is to address the parents' concerns by suggesting scheduling a hearing test and potentially referring the child to a speech therapist if necessary. This proactive approach can help evaluate and support the child's hearing and speech development effectively. Choice B is incorrect as assuming that most children outgrow ear infections and speech delays may overlook potential issues that need intervention. Choice C is wrong because waiting until adolescence to address concerns may lead to missed opportunities for early intervention. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the parents' valid concerns without offering a solution or further evaluation.

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