Nursing Elites

1. When reviewing developmental changes with the parents of a 6-month-old infant, what information should the practical nurse reinforce?

• A. Encourage the infant to self-feed finger foods.
• B. Teach the parents strategies to help the infant sit up.
• C. Provide a developmentally safe environment for the infant.
• D. Explain that an increased appetite typically occurs in the next 6 months.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing a developmentally safe environment for a 6-month-old infant is crucial as they begin to explore their surroundings more actively. This includes ensuring that the environment is free of hazards and that the infant is supervised to prevent accidents. Choice A is incorrect because self-feeding finger foods may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. Choice B is incorrect as most infants are able to sit up with support around 6 months of age without the need for specific teaching strategies. Choice D is also incorrect as while appetite changes can occur, explaining a specific increase in appetite over the next 6 months is not a primary focus when discussing developmental changes with parents of a 6-month-old.

2. A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain assistance in holding him to prevent injury.
• B. Observe him carefully.
• C. Call a CODE.
• D. Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.

3. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?

• A. 1875 mg
• B. 625 mg
• C. 2000 mg
• D. 1500 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.

4. When caring for a child with Kawasaki disease, which symptom is the most significant for making this diagnosis?

• A. Desquamation of the palms and soles.
• B. Cervical lymphadenopathy.
• C. Erythema of the hands and feet.
• D. Strawberry tongue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythema of the hands and feet is a key diagnostic criterion for Kawasaki disease. This, along with other symptoms like fever and strawberry tongue, helps in making the diagnosis. While desquamation of the palms and soles, cervical lymphadenopathy, and strawberry tongue are associated with Kawasaki disease, the presence of erythema of the hands and feet is particularly significant in diagnosing this condition.

5. A 3-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with severe dehydration. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV infusion of 0.9% normal saline. The nurse notes that the child’s heart rate is 150 beats per minute, and the blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer the IV fluids as prescribed
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Check the child’s urine output
• D. Reassess the child’s vital signs in 30 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a pediatric patient with severe dehydration and signs of compromised hemodynamics such as tachycardia (heart rate of 150 bpm) and hypotension (blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg), the priority intervention is to administer IV fluids as prescribed. Immediate fluid resuscitation is essential to restore hydration, improve perfusion, and stabilize the child's vital signs. While it's important to monitor urine output, initiating fluid resuscitation takes precedence in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can cause a delay in critical intervention, and waiting to reassess vital signs in 30 minutes can be detrimental in a child with severe dehydration and compromised hemodynamics.

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