HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. When reviewing developmental changes with the parents of a 6-month-old infant, what information should the practical nurse reinforce?
- A. Encourage the infant to self-feed finger foods.
- B. Teach the parents strategies to help the infant sit up.
- C. Provide a developmentally safe environment for the infant.
- D. Explain that an increased appetite typically occurs in the next 6 months.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing a developmentally safe environment for a 6-month-old infant is crucial as they begin to explore their surroundings more actively. This includes ensuring that the environment is free of hazards and that the infant is supervised to prevent accidents. Choice A is incorrect because self-feeding finger foods may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. Choice B is incorrect as most infants are able to sit up with support around 6 months of age without the need for specific teaching strategies. Choice D is also incorrect as while appetite changes can occur, explaining a specific increase in appetite over the next 6 months is not a primary focus when discussing developmental changes with parents of a 6-month-old.
2. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who is admitted with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. The adolescent’s vital signs are stable, but the nurse notes that the client has dry skin and appears thin. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Initiate a structured eating plan for the client
- B. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
- C. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels
- D. Provide education on healthy eating habits
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In clients with bulimia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances are common due to purging behaviors and can lead to severe complications. Monitoring electrolyte levels is essential to detect and manage any imbalances promptly, as they can be life-threatening.
3. A child who weighs 25 kg is receiving IV ampicillin at a dose of 300 mg/kg/24 hours in equally divided doses every 4 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer to the child for each dose?
- A. 1875 mg
- B. 625 mg
- C. 2000 mg
- D. 1500 mg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the correct dose for each administration, you first need to find the total daily dose: 300 mg/kg * 25 kg = 7500 mg/day. Since this total dose is divided into equally divided doses every 4 hours, there are 6 doses in 24 hours. Therefore, 7500 mg ÷ 6 doses = 1250 mg per dose. The nurse should administer 1250 mg every 4 hours, resulting in a total of 1875 mg for each dose in a 24-hour period. Choice A, 1875 mg, is the correct answer. Choice B, 625 mg, is incorrect as it does not consider the total daily dose and the frequency of administration. Choice C, 2000 mg, is incorrect as it is not the calculated dosage based on the given parameters. Choice D, 1500 mg, is also incorrect as it does not reflect the correct dosage calculation for each dose.
4. The caregiver is being educated by a healthcare provider about the use of a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for their 8-year-old child with asthma. Which statement by the caregiver indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will shake the inhaler before each use
- B. My child should breathe in quickly after pressing the inhaler
- C. I should wait a minute between puffs
- D. We should use a spacer with the inhaler
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The caregiver should be informed that the child should breathe in slowly and deeply after pressing the inhaler. This allows for better medication delivery to the lungs and ensures optimal effectiveness of the treatment.
5. A 3-year-old with a congenital heart defect has had a steady decrease in heart rate, now at 76 bpm from 110 bpm four hours ago. Which additional finding should be reported immediately to a healthcare provider?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
- B. Respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute.
- C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr.
- D. Blood pressure of 70/40.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A significant drop in heart rate and blood pressure should be reported immediately as it may indicate worsening of the congenital heart defect. The blood pressure of 70/40 is dangerously low and requires immediate attention to prevent further complications. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not indicate immediate danger. A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. Urine output of 20 mL/hr is low but may not be the most concerning finding in this scenario compared to the drop in blood pressure.
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