HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. A 16-year-old female student with a history of asthma controlled with both an oral antihistamine and an albuterol (Proventil) metered-dose inhaler (MDI) comes to the school nurse. The student complains that she cannot sleep at night, feels shaky and her heart feels like it is 'beating a mile a minute.' Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. When she last took the antihistamine.
- B. When her last asthma attack occurred.
- C. Duration of most asthma attacks.
- D. How often the MDI is used daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain in this scenario is how often the MDI is used daily. This is crucial to assess if the symptoms the student is experiencing, such as insomnia, shakiness, and tachycardia, could be related to overuse of the inhaler. Overuse of albuterol can lead to side effects like tremors, palpitations, and difficulty sleeping, so understanding the frequency of MDI use is key in determining a potential cause for the student's symptoms. Options A, B, and C are not as pertinent in this situation as they do not directly address the possible link between the student's symptoms and the use of the albuterol MDI.
2. The nurse is assessing a 4-month-old infant who has just received routine immunizations. The mother reports that the baby has been fussy and has a low-grade fever since the immunizations. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. These are common side effects and should resolve within a few days
- B. Your baby may be having an allergic reaction to the immunizations
- C. You should bring your baby to the clinic immediately for evaluation
- D. You should give your baby aspirin to help with the fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is to reassure the mother that fussiness and low-grade fever are common side effects of immunizations in infants and should resolve within a few days. It is essential to educate the mother about these expected reactions to alleviate her concerns. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to immunizations usually present with more severe symptoms such as difficulty breathing or swelling. Choice C is not warranted unless there are concerning symptoms present. Choice D is inappropriate as aspirin is contraindicated in infants due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.
3. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
- A. 4.2 mL
- B. 5 mL
- C. 3.6 mL
- D. 4 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.
4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?
- A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
- B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
- C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
- D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.
5. In a 12-year-old child with a history of epilepsy brought to the emergency department after experiencing a 10-minute seizure, what is the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer antiepileptic medication as prescribed
- C. Monitor the child’s vital signs
- D. Check the child’s blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering antiepileptic medication as prescribed is the priority intervention in a child with a history of epilepsy who experienced a prolonged seizure. This action is crucial to stop the seizure and prevent further complications associated with prolonged seizure activity. Administering oxygen may be necessary, but the priority is to stop the seizure. Monitoring vital signs and checking blood glucose levels are important but secondary to administering antiepileptic medication to manage the seizure.
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