Nursing Elites

1. A 7-year-old child with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with a respiratory infection. The nurse is teaching the child’s parents about the importance of chest physiotherapy (CPT). Which statement by the parents indicates they need further teaching?

• A. We should perform CPT before meals.
• B. CPT will help loosen mucus in the lungs.
• C. We should perform CPT right after the child eats.
• D. CPT is an important part of our child’s treatment.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chest physiotherapy should not be performed right after meals to avoid inducing vomiting. It should be done before meals or at least 1 hour after for effective mucus clearance and to prevent any potential complications like vomiting. Choice A is correct as performing CPT before meals helps in loosening mucus. Choice B is also correct as CPT is indeed helpful in loosening mucus in the lungs. Choice D is correct as CPT plays a crucial role in the treatment of cystic fibrosis.

2. The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the procedure. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of brown stool.
• C. Obtain a stool specimen for laboratory analysis.
• D. Ask the parents about recent changes in the infant's diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial when an infant scheduled for intussusception reduction passes a soft-formed brown stool as it may indicate spontaneous reduction of the intussusception. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to assess if the procedure is still necessary or if further evaluation is required. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not the immediate action required in this situation. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not necessary as the soft-formed brown stool is likely a result of the intussusception spontaneously reducing. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the most appropriate action when brown stool is passed before the procedure for intussusception reduction.

3. A 3-year-old child with a high fever and sore throat is brought to the clinic. The nurse observes that the child is drooling and has difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer antipyretic medication
• B. Prepare for emergency airway management
• C. Offer the child ice chips to suck on
• D. Assess the child’s hydration status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child with drooling, difficulty swallowing, high fever, and sore throat, the nurse should prioritize preparing for emergency airway management. These signs may indicate epiglottitis, a condition that can quickly obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory distress and potentially fatal outcomes if not managed promptly. Administering antipyretic medication (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Offering ice chips (Choice C) is contraindicated as the child has difficulty swallowing. Assessing hydration status (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the airway is at risk.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased periorbital edema
• C. Increased periods of rest
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 kg/day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

Similar Questions