HESI RN
HESI Pediatric Practice Exam
1. In a 7-year-old child with a history of asthma experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation and displaying wheezing and the use of accessory muscles to breathe, what is the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
- B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
- C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator. During an acute asthma exacerbation in a child with wheezing and increased work of breathing, the priority intervention is to provide immediate bronchodilation to dilate the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. This intervention aims to manage the acute asthma attack effectively and prevent further respiratory distress. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or notifying the healthcare provider are important actions, but administering a bronchodilator takes precedence in addressing the acute respiratory compromise.
2. What should the nurse do first for a 6-year-old with asthma showing a prolonged expiratory phase, wheezing, and 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)?
- A. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator.
- B. Encourage the child to cough and take deep breaths.
- C. Report the findings to the healthcare provider.
- D. Identify the triggers that precipitated this attack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority action in managing an acute asthma exacerbation in a child. Bronchodilators help to relax the muscles around the airways, opening them up and improving breathing. This intervention aims to address the immediate breathing difficulty and should be done promptly to provide relief for the child. Encouraging coughing and deep breaths (choice B) may worsen the child's condition by further constricting the airways. Reporting findings to the healthcare provider (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority in this acute situation. Identifying triggers (choice D) is crucial for long-term asthma management but is not the first step when managing an acute exacerbation.
3. A 16-year-old female student with a history of asthma controlled with both an oral antihistamine and an albuterol (Proventil) metered-dose inhaler (MDI) comes to the school nurse. The student complains that she cannot sleep at night, feels shaky, and her heart feels like it is 'beating a mile a minute.' Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. When she last took the antihistamine.
- B. When her last asthma attack occurred.
- C. Duration of most asthma attacks.
- D. How often the MDI is used daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain is how often the MDI is used daily. This is crucial to assess if the symptoms of insomnia, shakiness, and rapid heart rate are related to overuse of the inhaler, leading to potential side effects such as systemic effects of beta-2 agonists.
4. A 7-year-old is admitted to the hospital with persistent vomiting, and a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction is applied. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours.
- B. Shift intake of 640 mL IV fluids plus 30 mL PO ice chips.
- C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
- D. Serum pH of 7.45.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is significantly low and indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. The other findings are not as critical in this situation. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours may be expected in a patient with persistent vomiting. The shift intake of IV fluids and ice chips indicates fluid replacement, which is important but not as urgent as correcting electrolyte imbalances. A serum pH of 7.45 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.
5. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?
- A. Apply ice to the affected joint
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Elevate the affected limb
- D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.
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