Nursing Elites

1. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a 6-month-old infant with heart failure. The healthcare provider notes that the infant’s heart rate is 90 beats per minute. What should the healthcare provider do next?

• A. Administer the medication as prescribed
• B. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider
• C. Reassess the heart rate in 30 minutes
• D. Administer half the prescribed dose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider. Digoxin should be withheld if the infant’s heart rate is below 100 beats per minute. Administering digoxin in this situation can further slow down the heart rate in infants with heart failure, leading to potential adverse effects. Reassessing the heart rate in 30 minutes is not the best immediate action to take, as prompt notification and withholding of the medication are crucial. Administering the medication as prescribed or giving half the dose can exacerbate the situation by potentially further lowering the heart rate.

3. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

• A. Blood pressure is decreasing, and the pulse is rapid and irregular.
• B. The right foot feels cool to the touch and appears pale and blanched.
• C. The pulse distal to the femoral artery is weaker in the left foot than the right foot.
• D. The pressure dressing at the right femoral area is damp and oozing blood.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. Before administering a tube feeding to a child, what should the practical nurse (PN) assess?

• A. Tube placement.
• B. Bowel sounds.
• C. Abdominal circumference.
• D. Tube patency.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing tube placement is critical before initiating a tube feeding to verify its correct positioning in the stomach. This assessment helps prevent potential complications such as aspiration if the tube is incorrectly placed in the respiratory tract. Checking bowel sounds, abdominal circumference, and tube patency are important assessments in the care of a child receiving tube feedings, but ensuring proper tube placement takes precedence to ensure safe and effective delivery of nutrition.

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