Nursing Elites

1. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

2. What information should be reinforced with the parents about introducing solid foods to their infant?

• A. Begin with one tablespoon of the food.
• B. Introduce each food 4 to 7 days apart.
• C. Mix the new food with rice cereal.
• D. Remove foods when the infant refuses them.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Introducing solid foods 4 to 7 days apart is crucial as it allows time to identify any allergic reactions or intolerances to specific foods. This gradual introduction helps parents monitor their infant's response to new foods and pinpoint any potential issues, ensuring the infant's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because starting with one tablespoon of the food, mixing new food with rice cereal, and removing foods when the infant refuses them are not recommended practices for introducing solid foods to infants.

3. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 4.2 mL
• B. 5 mL
• C. 3.6 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.

4. A 12-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of osteomyelitis. Which finding should the nurse expect during the assessment?

• A. Localized pain and swelling
• B. Generalized joint stiffness
• C. Pain in the muscles
• D. Limited range of motion in the limbs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In osteomyelitis, an infection of the bone, patients typically present with localized pain, swelling, and warmth over the affected bone. This is due to the inflammatory response in the bone tissue. Generalized joint stiffness, pain in the muscles, and limited range of motion in the limbs are not specific to osteomyelitis and are more commonly associated with other conditions.

5. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.

Similar Questions