Nursing Elites

1. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

2. The parents of a 3-year-old boy who has Duchenne muscular dystrophy ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide to parents?

• A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
• B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
• C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
• D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects males. It is crucial for the nurse to explain to the parents that this condition follows an inheritance pattern where the gene mutation responsible for the disorder is located on the X chromosome. Males have only one X chromosome, so if they inherit the mutated gene, they will develop the disease. Females, on the other hand, have two X chromosomes, providing a backup copy that can compensate for the mutation. Understanding this inheritance pattern is essential for family planning decisions, as the risk of passing on the disorder to future children can be explained based on this genetic inheritance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the genetic basis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy or its inheritance pattern, which is crucial information for the parents in this scenario.

3. A 14-year-old client with type 1 diabetes is participating in a school sports event. The nurse provides education to the client about managing blood glucose levels during physical activity. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should check my blood sugar before and after exercise
• B. I need to eat a snack before I start playing
• C. If my blood sugar is high, I should skip my insulin dose before exercise
• D. I should carry a fast-acting carbohydrate with me during sports

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Skipping the insulin dose when blood sugar is high before exercise can be harmful. It is essential to manage blood glucose levels carefully during physical activity, which may require adjustments to insulin doses but skipping doses is not recommended. Checking blood sugar before and after exercise (Choice A) helps in monitoring and managing blood glucose levels. Eating a snack before playing (Choice B) can help maintain blood sugar levels during physical activity. Carrying a fast-acting carbohydrate (Choice D) is important in case of low blood sugar during sports to quickly raise glucose levels. Therefore, the client needs further teaching on the importance of not skipping insulin doses even if blood sugar is high before exercise.

4. A 2-year-old boy begins to cry when the mother starts to leave. What is the nurse's best response in this situation?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two years old usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Waving bye-bye to mommy helps the child understand that the separation is temporary.

5. What action should the nurse take when a child presents with fever, sore throat, swollen red spots, and fluid-filled blisters?

• A. Obtain a fluid culture from the blisters
• B. Administer a fever-reducing medication
• C. Cover the drainage vesicles with a dressing
• D. Implement transmission precautions

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a child presents with fever, sore throat, swollen red spots, and fluid-filled blisters, it may indicate a contagious viral infection. In such cases, implementing transmission precautions is crucial to prevent the spread of the infection to others in the pediatric clinic or community. Obtaining a fluid culture from the blisters (Choice A) may not be necessary at the initial stage without knowing the cause of the infection. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice B) may help manage symptoms but doesn't address the need for preventing transmission. Covering the drainage vesicles with a dressing (Choice C) may provide comfort to the child but does not directly address the risk of transmission to others.

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