Nursing Elites

1. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

2. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old adolescent who is admitted with a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. The adolescent’s vital signs are stable, but the nurse notes that the client has dry skin and appears thin. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Initiate a structured eating plan for the client
• B. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the client
• C. Monitor the client’s electrolyte levels
• D. Provide education on healthy eating habits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with bulimia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances are common due to purging behaviors and can lead to severe complications. Monitoring electrolyte levels is essential to detect and manage any imbalances promptly, as they can be life-threatening.

3. What is the priority intervention for a 16-year-old client with a history of depression who is brought to the emergency department after taking an overdose of acetaminophen?

• A. Administer activated charcoal
• B. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
• C. Prepare for gastric lavage
• D. Administer N-acetylcysteine as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client who has taken an acetaminophen overdose is to administer N-acetylcysteine promptly. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and helps prevent liver damage. Activated charcoal may be used in certain cases, but N-acetylcysteine takes precedence as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen. Continuous cardiac monitoring and gastric lavage are not the priority interventions for acetaminophen overdose. Administering N-acetylcysteine is crucial to prevent liver damage and address the overdose, making it the most urgent action in this scenario.

4. A 15-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic for a routine follow-up. The nurse notes that the client’s hemoglobin A1c is 10%. What should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Increase the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose.
• B. Discuss dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake.
• C. Review the client’s insulin administration technique.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control, reflecting an average blood sugar level over the past 2-3 months. To improve control, the plan of care should be comprehensive. Increasing the frequency of self-monitoring of blood glucose helps track changes in blood sugar levels. Discussing dietary changes to reduce carbohydrate intake can aid in better blood sugar management. Reviewing the client’s insulin administration technique ensures proper medication dosing. Therefore, all the options (increasing monitoring, discussing dietary changes, and reviewing insulin administration) are essential components of the plan of care to address the client's poor blood glucose control. The correct answer is D because all these interventions are crucial for managing the client's condition effectively. Choices A, B, and C individually address different aspects of diabetes management and are all necessary in this scenario.

5. When instilling ear drops in a 2-year-old child, how should the practical nurse (PN) position the earlobe to straighten the external auditory canal?

• A. Up and back.
• B. Down and back.
• C. Up and forward.
• D. Down and forward.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering ear drops to a child under three years old, it is essential to pull the earlobe down and back. This positioning helps straighten the external auditory canal, facilitating the proper administration of the ear drops. Pulling the earlobe down and back in young children aims to ensure that the medication reaches the intended area for optimal effectiveness.

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