HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. The nurse provides information about the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine to the mother of a 14-year-old adolescent who came to the clinic this morning complaining of menstrual cramping. Which explanation should the nurse provide to support administering the HPV vaccine to the adolescent at this visit?
- A. Use of protective barriers during sexual activity prevents most strains of HPV infection
- B. Most adolescents are not honest about being sexually active
- C. Not all strains of HPV will be covered if given at a later date
- D. Immunity must be established to prevent future HPV infection and the risk for cervical cancer
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering the HPV vaccine at this visit is essential to establish immunity against HPV, thus reducing the risk of HPV infection and cervical cancer. Vaccination is a proactive measure to protect the adolescent's health in the future. Choice A is incorrect because although protective barriers can reduce the risk of HPV transmission, the vaccine provides broader protection. Choice B is incorrect as it makes a generalization about adolescent behavior that is not relevant to vaccination. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests that delaying vaccination would not impact coverage, which is inaccurate as earlier vaccination provides broader protection against HPV strains.
2. A school-age child with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department with confusion and rapid breathing. The practical nurse (PN) suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which initial intervention should the PN anticipate?
- A. Administer subcutaneous insulin.
- B. Give oral glucose tablets.
- C. Start intravenous fluids.
- D. Administer oxygen therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Intravenous fluids are typically the initial intervention in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) to treat dehydration and stabilize the patient's condition. The fluid replacement helps correct electrolyte imbalances and improve perfusion, which are crucial in managing DKA. Insulin therapy follows after fluid resuscitation to address the underlying cause of DKA, which is the lack of insulin leading to increased ketone production. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice A) would be premature without first addressing the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Giving oral glucose tablets (Choice B) is contraindicated in DKA as the patient already has high blood glucose levels. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but addressing dehydration with intravenous fluids is the priority intervention in DKA.
3. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Increase the child’s insulin dose
- B. Review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique
- C. Discuss the possibility of switching to oral hypoglycemics
- D. Schedule a follow-up appointment in three months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.
4. A 9-week-old infant is scheduled for cleft lip repair. Which information is most important for the nurse to convey to the surgeon before transporting the infant to the surgical suite?
- A. Red blood cell count of 2.3 million/mm³
- B. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm³
- C. Weight gain of 2 pounds since birth
- D. Urine specific gravity is 1.011
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a low red blood cell count may indicate anemia, which could pose risks during surgery. Anemia can affect oxygen delivery to tissues, impacting wound healing and overall surgical outcomes. The other options, such as white blood cell count, weight gain, and urine specific gravity, are less critical for immediate surgical considerations. White blood cell count is more related to infection risk postoperatively rather than immediate surgical risk. Weight gain reflects good overall growth but does not impact the immediate surgical situation. Urine specific gravity is more indicative of hydration status rather than immediate surgical risk.
5. What information should the nurse provide to parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy who inquire about the disease and future children?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family
- B. The striated muscle groups of males can be impacted by a lack of the protein dystrophin in their mothers
- C. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated so muscle damage was incurred
- D. Birth trauma with a breech vaginal birth causes damage to the spinal cord, thus weakening the muscles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the DMD gene on the X chromosome. This disorder primarily affects males because they have one X chromosome, inherited from their mothers, who may be carriers of the mutated gene. Females have two X chromosomes, providing a protective effect as the normal gene on one X chromosome can compensate for the mutated gene on the other. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which is why their son has the disease and why there is a risk of passing it on to future sons. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately implies that the lack of dystrophin in mothers impacts their sons' muscle groups. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a viral infection caused the muscle damage, which is not the case with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as it attributes the muscle weakness to birth trauma instead of the genetic nature of the disorder.
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