HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?
- A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
- B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
- C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
- D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.
2. A 6-year-old child with sickle cell anemia presents to the emergency department with severe pain in the legs and abdomen. The child is crying and states that the pain is unbearable. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Apply warm compresses to the painful areas
- B. Administer prescribed pain medication
- C. Encourage the child to drink fluids
- D. Monitor the child’s oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a sickle cell crisis, pain management is a priority to alleviate the child's suffering. Administering the prescribed pain medication is crucial to address the severe pain experienced by the child. Warm compresses, encouraging fluid intake, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions but should follow the priority of pain management in this situation.
3. A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?
- A. Increased weight gain
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Reduced headaches
- D. Diminished fatigue
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Decreased heart rate.' Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to manage symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including tachycardia. Monitoring for a decreased heart rate is important as it indicates the drug's therapeutic response in controlling the elevated heart rate associated with Graves' disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, reduced headaches, and diminished fatigue are not typical therapeutic responses to propranolol in the context of managing Graves' disease.
4. A 10-year-old girl who has had type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) for the past two years tells the nurse that she would like to use a pump instead of insulin injections to manage her diabetes. Which assessment of the girl is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Understanding of the quality control process used to troubleshoot the pump
- B. Interpretation of fingerstick glucose levels that influence diet selections
- C. Knowledge of her glycosylated hemoglobin A1c levels for the past year
- D. Ability to perform the pump for basal insulin with mealtime boluses
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient transitioning to an insulin pump, understanding the quality control process to troubleshoot the pump is crucial for ensuring proper and safe management of diabetes. This knowledge enables the individual to identify and address any issues that may arise with the pump, helping maintain optimal glycemic control and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D, although important in diabetes management, are not as critical as ensuring the correct understanding of troubleshooting the pump, which directly impacts the girl's ability to effectively use the pump for insulin delivery.
5. What action should the nurse implement after the infusion is complete for a 16-year-old with acute myelocytic leukemia receiving chemotherapy via an implanted medication port at the outpatient oncology clinic?
- A. Administer Zofran
- B. Obtain blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets
- C. Flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution
- D. Initiate an infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After completing the chemotherapy infusion via the implanted medication port, the nurse should flush the mediport with saline and heparin solution. This action helps prevent clot formation in the port, ensuring its patency for future use and reducing the risk of complications associated with catheter occlusion. Administering Zofran (Choice A) is used for managing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, not for post-infusion care. Obtaining blood samples for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets (Choice B) is important for monitoring the patient's blood count but is not the immediate post-infusion priority. Initiating an infusion of normal saline (Choice D) is not necessary after completing the chemotherapy infusion.
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