Nursing Elites

1. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?

• A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
• B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
• C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
• D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.

2. A 14-year-old adolescent with a history of substance abuse is brought to the emergency department by the parents, who suspect that the adolescent has relapsed. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening
• B. Discuss treatment options with the parents
• C. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the adolescent
• D. Administer a medication to reverse the effects of the substance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority action should be to obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening. This step is crucial in identifying the substances involved in the relapse, which will guide appropriate treatment strategies. By knowing the specific substances, healthcare providers can tailor treatment plans effectively. Establishing a therapeutic relationship and discussing treatment options come after obtaining necessary diagnostic information to ensure a comprehensive care plan. Administering a medication to reverse substance effects is not the initial priority; identification of the substances through toxicology screening should precede any treatment intervention.

3. The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the scheduled procedure. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of brown stool.
• C. Obtain a stool specimen for laboratory analysis.
• D. Ask the parents about recent changes in the infant's diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial in this situation because the passage of a brown stool may indicate the resolution of intussusception. It is important to keep the healthcare provider informed about any changes in the infant's condition to ensure appropriate care and management. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not necessary based on the passage of brown stool. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not indicated in this scenario since the brown stool is likely a positive sign. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the priority at this moment as notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence.

4. During a well-baby check of a 7-month-old infant, the practical nurse notes an absence of babbling. Which focused assessment should the PN implement?

• A. Visual function.
• B. Auditory function.
• C. Cognitive function.
• D. Social development.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of babbling in a 7-month-old infant is a concerning auditory development milestone. Babbling is an early stage of language development that involves making various sounds. A lack of babbling could indicate a hearing impairment or other auditory issues. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on assessing the infant's auditory function to determine if further evaluation or intervention is necessary. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the absence of babbling specifically points towards a potential issue related to auditory function rather than visual, cognitive, or social development.

5. A 13-year-old client with type 1 diabetes presents to the clinic with a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL. The client reports feeling thirsty and having frequent urination. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed
• B. Encourage the client to drink water
• C. Check the client’s urine for ketones
• D. Reinforce the importance of diet and exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with type 1 diabetes presenting with hyperglycemia (blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL) and symptoms of thirst and frequent urination, the priority action for the nurse is to administer insulin as prescribed. Insulin helps lower the blood glucose level and prevents complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. While encouraging hydration is essential, administering insulin is crucial to address the high blood glucose levels. Checking urine for ketones is important in diabetic management but is secondary to administering insulin in this scenario. Reinforcing diet and exercise importance is vital for diabetes management but not the priority in acute hyperglycemia.

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