Nursing Elites

1. The nurse provides information about the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine to the mother of a 14-year-old adolescent who came to the clinic this morning complaining of menstrual cramping. Which explanation should the nurse provide to support administering the HPV vaccine to the adolescent at this visit?

• A. Use of protective barriers during sexual activity prevents most strains of HPV infection
• B. Most adolescents are not honest about being sexually active
• C. Not all strains of HPV will be covered if given at a later date
• D. Immunity must be established to prevent future HPV infection and the risk for cervical cancer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering the HPV vaccine helps establish immunity before potential exposure to the virus, reducing the risk of HPV infection and subsequent development of cervical cancer. It is recommended to vaccinate adolescents before they become sexually active for maximum effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because while protective barriers can reduce the risk, they do not prevent all strains of HPV. Choice B is incorrect and judgmental as it assumes dishonesty without providing relevant information about HPV vaccination. Choice C is incorrect as it downplays the importance of vaccination by suggesting that not all strains are necessary to cover, which is not the case in preventing HPV-related diseases.

2. A child with a fever of 39°C (102.2°F) and a sore throat is brought to the clinic. The practical nurse suspects the child has streptococcal pharyngitis. Which diagnostic test should the practical nurse prepare the child for?

• A. Rapid antigen detection test.
• B. Throat culture.
• C. Complete blood count (CBC).
• D. Chest X-ray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid antigen detection test is the appropriate diagnostic test for suspected streptococcal pharyngitis. This test is commonly used due to its quick results, helping in the prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment of the condition. It specifically detects the presence of streptococcal antigens in the throat, aiding in confirming the diagnosis and guiding the healthcare provider in determining the most suitable treatment plan. Throat culture (Choice B) is a confirmatory test but is not as rapid as the rapid antigen detection test. Complete blood count (Choice C) and Chest X-ray (Choice D) are not specific tests for streptococcal pharyngitis and would not aid in confirming the diagnosis.

3. The practical nurse (PN) is caring for an adolescent who has been diagnosed with mononucleosis. Which activity should the PN advise the adolescent to avoid?

• A. Playing video games.
• B. Drinking caffeinated beverages.
• C. Participating in contact sports.
• D. Eating spicy foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact sports should be avoided in mononucleosis due to the risk of spleen rupture, which is a serious complication of the disease. The spleen can enlarge in mononucleosis, making it more susceptible to injury from contact sports, potentially leading to a life-threatening situation if rupture occurs.

4. A 2-year-old child with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is being treated in the hospital. What should the healthcare provider monitor for in this child?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Decreased respiratory rate.
• C. Labored breathing.
• D. Improved appetite.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Labored breathing is a critical sign of worsening respiratory distress in children with RSV. It indicates that the child's condition may be deteriorating, requiring prompt intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring for labored breathing allows healthcare providers to promptly assess and manage the child's respiratory status, potentially preventing further complications associated with RSV infection.

5. A 7-year-old is admitted to the hospital with persistent vomiting, and a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction is applied. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours.
• B. Shift intake of 640 mL IV fluids plus 30 mL PO ice chips.
• C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
• D. Serum pH of 7.45.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is significantly low and indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. The other findings are not as critical in this situation. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours may be expected in a patient with persistent vomiting. The shift intake of IV fluids and ice chips indicates fluid replacement, which is important but not as urgent as correcting electrolyte imbalances. A serum pH of 7.45 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

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