Nursing Elites

1. A 6-month-old female is scheduled to receive diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine) immunizations. She is recovering from a cold but is otherwise healthy and afebrile. Her 5-year-old sister is receiving chemotherapy. Which considerations should the nurse make for this situation?

• A. DTaP and IPV can be safely given to the infant at the scheduled time.
• B. DTaP and IPV are contraindicated because the infant has a cold.
• C. IPV is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.
• D. DTaP is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: DTaP and IPV can be safely administered to a child with a mild illness like a cold, even if there is an immunocompromised family member, as these vaccines do not contain live viruses. It is important to ensure that the child is otherwise healthy and afebrile before administering the vaccines. The presence of a cold is not a contraindication for receiving DTaP and IPV vaccines. Choice A is correct because the infant can receive both vaccines as scheduled. Choice B is incorrect as having a cold does not contraindicate DTaP and IPV administration. Choice C is incorrect because IPV is not contraindicated due to the sister's immunocompromised status. Choice D is incorrect as both DTaP and IPV can be given in this scenario.

2. A child receives a prescription for amantadine 42 mg PO BID. Amantadine is available as a 50 mg/5 mL syrup. Using a supplied calibrated measuring device, how many mL should be administered per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 4.2 mL
• B. 5 mL
• C. 3.6 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL per dose, divide the prescribed dose (42 mg) by the concentration of the syrup (50 mg/5 mL) and then convert the result to mL. 42 mg / 50 mg = 0.84. To find the amount in mL, multiply 0.84 by 5 mL, which equals 4.2 mL. Therefore, 4.2 mL should be administered per dose.

3. A 7-year-old is admitted to the hospital with persistent vomiting, and a nasogastric tube attached to low intermittent suction is applied. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours.
• B. Shift intake of 640 mL IV fluids plus 30 mL PO ice chips.
• C. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L.
• D. Serum pH of 7.45.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is significantly low and indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate intervention. The other findings are not as critical in this situation. Gastric output of 100 mL in the last 8 hours may be expected in a patient with persistent vomiting. The shift intake of IV fluids and ice chips indicates fluid replacement, which is important but not as urgent as correcting electrolyte imbalances. A serum pH of 7.45 is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate concern.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left-to-right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. The infant scheduled for reduction of intussusception passes a soft-formed brown stool the day before the scheduled procedure. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the parents that the infant needs to be NPO.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the passage of brown stool.
• C. Obtain a stool specimen for laboratory analysis.
• D. Ask the parents about recent changes in the infant's diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider is crucial in this situation because the passage of a brown stool may indicate the resolution of intussusception. It is important to keep the healthcare provider informed about any changes in the infant's condition to ensure appropriate care and management. Instructing the parents that the infant needs to be NPO (nothing by mouth) is not necessary based on the passage of brown stool. Obtaining a stool specimen for laboratory analysis is not indicated in this scenario since the brown stool is likely a positive sign. Asking about recent changes in the infant's diet is not the priority at this moment as notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence.

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