Nursing Elites

1. A 6-month-old female is scheduled to receive diphtheria, tetanus toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (DTaP) and IPV (inactivated poliovirus vaccine) immunizations. She is recovering from a cold but is otherwise healthy and afebrile. Her 5-year-old sister is receiving chemotherapy. Which considerations should the nurse make for this situation?

• A. DTaP and IPV can be safely given to the infant at the scheduled time.
• B. DTaP and IPV are contraindicated because the infant has a cold.
• C. IPV is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.
• D. DTaP is contraindicated because her sister is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: DTaP and IPV can be safely administered to a child with a mild illness like a cold, even if there is an immunocompromised family member, as these vaccines do not contain live viruses. It is important to ensure that the child is otherwise healthy and afebrile before administering the vaccines. The presence of a cold is not a contraindication for receiving DTaP and IPV vaccines. Choice A is correct because the infant can receive both vaccines as scheduled. Choice B is incorrect as having a cold does not contraindicate DTaP and IPV administration. Choice C is incorrect because IPV is not contraindicated due to the sister's immunocompromised status. Choice D is incorrect as both DTaP and IPV can be given in this scenario.

2. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

3. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

4. A 14-year-old adolescent with a history of substance abuse is brought to the emergency department by the parents, who suspect that the adolescent has relapsed. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening
• B. Discuss treatment options with the parents
• C. Establish a therapeutic relationship with the adolescent
• D. Administer a medication to reverse the effects of the substance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's priority action should be to obtain a urine sample for toxicology screening. This step is crucial in identifying the substances involved in the relapse, which will guide appropriate treatment strategies. By knowing the specific substances, healthcare providers can tailor treatment plans effectively. Establishing a therapeutic relationship and discussing treatment options come after obtaining necessary diagnostic information to ensure a comprehensive care plan. Administering a medication to reverse substance effects is not the initial priority; identification of the substances through toxicology screening should precede any treatment intervention.

5. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

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