Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?

• A. Auscultate the client's bowel sounds
• B. Observe for edema around the ankles
• C. Measure the client's capillary glucose level
• D. Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client's bowel sounds. Hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that can slow peristalsis and commonly cause constipation. By assessing the client's bowel sounds, the nurse can monitor for any signs of decreased bowel motility or potential constipation. Observing for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to hydromorphone administration. Measuring capillary glucose levels (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Counting the apical and radial pulses simultaneously (Choice D) is not specifically indicated in this scenario involving hydromorphone administration.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should be closely monitored?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While monitoring electrolyte levels like serum potassium and sodium is important in overall client care, they are not specific to monitoring the effects of warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is a component of INR and helps in monitoring warfarin therapy, but INR gives a standardized result that is independent of the laboratory method used, making it the preferred choice for monitoring warfarin therapy.

3. A male client notifies the nurse that he feels short of breath and has chest pressure radiating down his left arm. A STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is obtained and shows ST segment elevation in leads II, III, aVF, and V4R. The nurse collects blood samples and gives a normal saline bolus. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Obtain the results for STAT serum cardiac biomarkers.
• B. Assess for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy.
• C. Measure ST-segment height and waveform changes.
• D. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for contraindications for thrombolytic therapy is crucial as it determines whether the client is a candidate for reperfusion therapy. In this scenario, the client is presenting with symptoms and ECG changes consistent with an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Thrombolytic therapy aims at restoring blood flow to the heart muscle, reducing the size of the infarct. However, it is essential to assess for contraindications such as recent surgery, active bleeding, or a history of stroke to avoid potential complications. Obtaining serum cardiac biomarkers or measuring ST-segment changes are important steps in the diagnosis of MI but are not as time-sensitive as assessing for contraindications to thrombolytic therapy. Transfer for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a definitive treatment for MI, but assessing for thrombolytic therapy eligibility takes precedence in this acute situation.

4. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with nausea, vomiting, yellow vision, and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess for this client?

• A. Assess distal pulses and signs of peripheral edema
• B. Determine the client's level of orientation and cognition
• C. Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history
• D. Ask the client about exposure to environmental heat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history. The client's presentation is indicative of digitalis toxicity, commonly associated with medications like digoxin (Lanoxin) used in heart failure treatment. Understanding the client's medication history, particularly the use of digoxin, is crucial in confirming and managing digitalis toxicity. Assessing distal pulses and signs of peripheral edema (Choice A) may be relevant in heart failure but are not the priority in this case. Determining the client's level of orientation and cognition (Choice B) and asking about exposure to environmental heat (Choice D) are not directly related to the client's current symptoms and are less pertinent in this scenario.

5. Following a lumbar puncture, a client voices several complaints. What complaint indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing a complication?

• A. I am having pain in my lower back when I move my legs
• B. My throat hurts when I swallow
• C. I feel sick to my stomach and am going to throw up
• D. I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A post-lumbar puncture headache, ranging from mild to severe, may occur as a result of leakage of cerebrospinal fluid at the puncture site. This complication is usually managed by bed rest, analgesics, and hydration. Choices A, B, and C do not directly indicate complications associated with a lumbar puncture. Pain in the lower back when moving legs, a sore throat when swallowing, and nausea with a feeling of vomiting are not typical complications of lumbar puncture.

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