Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is using Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control and knows that these methods can be expected to do all the following except:

• A. completely relieve all pain.
• B. provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control.
• C. help the client to control symptoms.
• D. help the client actively participate in his or her care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-Behavioral methods of pain control aim to provide benefit by restoring the client's sense of self-control, helping the client to control symptoms, and encouraging the client to actively participate in their care. However, these methods are not intended to completely relieve all pain. These interventions focus on perception and thought, aiming to influence how one interprets events and bodily sensations. Therefore, the correct answer is that they cannot completely relieve all pain, as pain relief is often a multifaceted approach that may require additional interventions beyond Cognitive-Behavioral methods. Choices B, C, and D are correct as Cognitive-Behavioral methods are designed to empower the individual in managing their pain and improving their overall well-being.

2. A client with dysphagia is ready to eat lunch. Which of these foods on the tray would be best to start with when assisting the client?

• A. diced fruit
• B. apple juice with a liquid thickener
• C. Jell-O�
• D. toast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct choice is apple juice with a liquid thickener. A client with dysphagia is at risk for aspiration, so it is crucial to start with liquids and assess the client's ability to swallow before introducing solid foods. Using a liquid thickener with apple juice allows the healthcare provider to evaluate swallowing function. Jell-O�, although it melts into a clear liquid, should be avoided initially as it may not provide a clear assessment of swallowing ability. Diced fruit and toast are solid foods that should be introduced only after the client's swallowing ability with liquids has been assessed.

3. A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion compared with active motion of the left arm. Based on these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contacting the health care provider
• B. Checking if it is time for more pain medication
• C. Encouraging the client to continue active range of motion exercises of the left arm
• D. Repositioning the client for comfort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the health care provider. The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. Additionally, the affected client experiences greater pain during passive motion compared to active motion. In this situation, it is crucial to notify the health care provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Contacting the health care provider is essential to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Checking for more pain medication, encouraging active range of motion exercises, or repositioning the client may not address the underlying issue of acute compartment syndrome and could delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the priority action should be to involve the healthcare provider for prompt assessment and treatment.

4. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?

• A. moving calcium from bones to the bloodstream
• B. inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus
• C. promoting renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
• D. enhancing renal production of vitamin D metabolites

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus.' Parathyroid hormone actually inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus, making this choice the opposite of its function. Parathyroid hormone functions to move calcium from bones to the bloodstream (Choice A), promote renal tubular reabsorption of calcium (Choice C), and enhance renal production of vitamin D metabolites (Choice D). Therefore, all other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone except for the inhibition of phosphorus reabsorption.

5. Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

• A. variable decelerations
• B. early decelerations
• C. bradycardia
• D. tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate cord compression as they are caused by umbilical cord compression or prolapse. This pattern shows an abrupt decrease in heart rate with an erratic shape, often resembling a V or W. Early decelerations (choice B) are typically caused by head compression during contractions and are considered benign. Bradycardia (choice C) is a consistent low heart rate below 110 bpm and is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (choice D) is an abnormally high heart rate above 160 bpm and is not associated with cord compression.

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