Nursing Elites

1. The client with DM is being taught about the signs of hyperglycemia. Which symptom should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive thirst
• B. Sweating
• C. Shaking
• D. Hunger

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Excessive thirst, also known as polydipsia, is a hallmark symptom of hyperglycemia. When blood glucose levels are high, the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, leading to increased urination and subsequent thirst. Sweating, shaking, and hunger are more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Sweating can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low, shaking is a sign of hypoglycemia, and hunger is often a result of low blood sugar levels triggering the body to seek fuel.

2. When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, Nurse April is most likely to detect:

• A. A blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg
• B. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl
• C. Bradycardia
• D. A blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. The normal blood pressure range is around 120/80 mm Hg, so a blood pressure reading of 176/88 mm Hg is most likely to be detected in a client with pheochromocytoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because pheochromocytoma typically presents with hypertension, not a normal or low blood pressure (choice A), not related to blood glucose levels (choice B), and not bradycardia (choice C).

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with this condition?

• A. Increased serum sodium
• B. Decreased urine specific gravity
• C. Decreased serum osmolality
• D. Increased serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum osmolality. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The dilution of sodium results in decreased serum osmolality. Option A is incorrect because SIADH causes hyponatremia, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Option B is incorrect because SIADH leads to concentrated urine with increased urine specific gravity. Option D is incorrect as SIADH does not typically affect serum potassium levels.

4. What is the nurse manager’s role in improving the quality of care on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for monitoring patient outcomes and implementing changes to improve the quality of care on the unit.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for ensuring that staff members follow established procedures and protocols to maintain the quality of care on the unit.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing feedback and coaching to staff members to help them improve their performance and achieve the unit’s quality goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager plays a crucial role in improving the quality of care on the unit by setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals. This involves strategic planning, coordination, and leadership to guide the team in delivering high-quality patient care. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring patient outcomes is important, it is not the primary role of the nurse manager in improving care quality. Option C is incorrect because while ensuring staff adherence to procedures is important, it is a part of maintaining quality rather than actively improving it. Option D is incorrect as providing feedback and coaching, though essential, is not the primary role of the nurse manager in setting goals and priorities for quality improvement.

5. The client has received IV solutions for three (3) days through a 20-gauge IV catheter placed in the left cephalic vein. On morning rounds, the nurse notes the IV site is tender to palpation and a red streak has formed. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Start a new IV in the right hand.
• B. Discontinue the intravenous line.
• C. Complete an incident record.
• D. Place a warm washcloth over the site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first action should be to discontinue the intravenous line to prevent further complications such as infection or thrombophlebitis. Starting a new IV in the right hand is not the priority as addressing the current issue is important. Completing an incident record can be done after addressing the immediate concern of the IV site. Placing a warm washcloth over the site does not address the red streak and tenderness, which may indicate an infection that requires discontinuation of the IV line.

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