Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperthyroidism is being treated with radioactive iodine. The nurse should teach the client to expect which of the following side effects?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with hyperthyroidism undergoes radioactive iodine treatment, it often leads to hypothyroidism due to the destruction of thyroid tissue. This occurs as a desired outcome of the treatment to reduce the overactive thyroid function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased heart rate, hypercalcemia, and weight loss are not expected side effects of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism. Instead, the goal is to suppress the overactive thyroid, leading to a hypothyroid state.

2. Working in a stressful work environment, nursing requires effective nurse managers. Which of the following skills is necessary for a nurse manager to be effective?

• A. Clinical knowledge
• B. Managerial skills
• C. Patient care coordination
• D. Human resource training

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Managerial skills are crucial for nurse managers to be effective. They need to possess skills such as problem-solving and decision-making to handle various challenges in the healthcare setting. Clinical knowledge (choice A) is important for direct patient care but may not be the primary focus of a manager's role. Patient care coordination (choice C) is vital, but managerial skills are more directly related to a nurse manager's effectiveness. Human resource training (choice D) is helpful but not as essential as managerial skills in ensuring effective leadership in a nursing environment.

3. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which 'related-to' phrase should the nurse add?

• A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
• B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
• C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
• D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures.' In chronic hyperparathyroidism, bone demineralization occurs due to the excessive release of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium resorption from bones. This process weakens the bones, making the client prone to pathologic fractures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the increased risk of injury associated with chronic hyperparathyroidism. Exhaustion, edema, dry skin, and tetany are not the primary risks for injury in this client population.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in the treatment of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. This is essential for fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering intravenous insulin can lead to further potassium depletion without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but should follow fluid resuscitation to avoid life-threatening hypokalemia. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is necessary to assess the acid-base status but is not the initial priority when managing DKA.

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