Nursing Elites

1. A client with DM is preparing for a foot care exam. The nurse should advise the client to:

• A. Wear loose-fitting shoes to protect the feet.
• B. Apply lotion to the tops and bottoms of the feet to keep the skin moist.
• C. Avoid using a heating pad to prevent burns on the feet.
• D. Avoid using sharp instruments to trim the toenails.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using sharp instruments to trim the toenails. This is crucial because using sharp instruments can lead to injuries such as cuts or wounds, increasing the risk of infections, especially in clients with diabetes who have decreased sensation in their feet. Choice A is incorrect because tight shoes can restrict circulation and increase the risk of pressure sores. Choice B is incorrect because applying lotion between the toes can create a moist environment, leading to fungal infections. Choice C is incorrect because using a heating pad can lead to burns, which can go unnoticed due to decreased sensation in diabetic feet.

2. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager’s actions?

• A. Resource allocation
• B. Monitoring
• C. Job analysis and redesign
• D. Planning for the future

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Planning for the future. In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in decisional activities related to planning for the future. This involves analyzing potential impacts of policy changes and community shifts on the unit's functioning and making decisions based on predictions and foresight. Option A, resource allocation, focuses on distributing resources effectively. Option B, monitoring, involves observing and assessing current activities. Option C, job analysis and redesign, pertains to evaluating and restructuring roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not the primary focus of the scenario provided.

3. A male client with primary diabetes insipidus is ready for discharge on desmopressin (DDAVP). Which instruction should nurse Lina provide?

• A. Administer desmopressin while the suspension is cold.
• B. Your condition isn't chronic, so you won't need to wear a medical identification bracelet.
• C. You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.
• D. You won't need to monitor your fluid intake and output after you start taking desmopressin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is choice C: 'You may not be able to use desmopressin nasally if you have nasal discharge or blockage.' Nasal congestion or blockage can interfere with the absorption of nasally administered desmopressin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is unnecessary as the temperature of the suspension does not impact desmopressin administration. Choice B is incorrect as wearing a medical identification bracelet is essential for individuals with diabetes insipidus to alert healthcare providers in case of emergencies. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring fluid intake and output is crucial when taking desmopressin to ensure proper hydration and medication effectiveness.

4. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. What is the most common cause of hyperaldosteronism?

• A. Excessive sodium intake
• B. A pituitary adenoma
• C. Deficient potassium intake
• D. An adrenal adenoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adrenal adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Hyperaldosteronism is typically caused by an adrenal adenoma, a benign tumor in the adrenal gland that leads to excessive aldosterone production. Excessive sodium intake (Choice A) does not directly cause hyperaldosteronism. Pituitary adenoma (Choice B) is associated with conditions like Cushing's disease, not hyperaldosteronism. Deficient potassium intake (Choice C) can lead to hypokalemia but is not a common cause of hyperaldosteronism.

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