Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with asthma. Which statement indicates the client understands how to use a rescue inhaler?

• A. I will use my rescue inhaler every morning to prevent asthma attacks.
• B. I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.
• C. I will use my rescue inhaler when my peak flow meter reading is in the green zone.
• D. I will only use my rescue inhaler before going to bed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I should use my rescue inhaler when I start to experience wheezing.' A rescue inhaler is used during the onset of asthma symptoms, such as wheezing, to quickly open the airways. It is not intended for routine daily use or prevention, which is the role of a maintenance inhaler. Option A is incorrect because a rescue inhaler is not used for prevention but for immediate relief during an asthma attack. Option C is incorrect because the peak flow meter reading is used to monitor asthma control, not to determine when to use a rescue inhaler. Option D is incorrect because using a rescue inhaler only before going to bed does not address the need for immediate relief when wheezing or experiencing asthma symptoms.

2. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

• A. Decreased liver enzymes.
• B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
• C. High bilirubin levels.
• D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing hyperglycemia. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate long-term glucose control?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C)
• C. Urine output
• D. Serum ketone level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C). Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects long-term glucose control over the past three months. Monitoring blood glucose levels provides information on the current glucose status and immediate control, but it does not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Urine output and serum ketone levels are important indicators for other aspects of diabetes management, such as hydration status and ketone production during hyperglycemic episodes, but they do not directly reflect long-term glucose control.

4. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a cracking sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing around the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
• C. Assess for allergies to topical cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes crepitus around a chest tube site, it could indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a potentially serious condition where air gets trapped under the skin. Measuring the area of swelling and crackling is important as it helps monitor the progression of subcutaneous emphysema. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) might not address the underlying cause and could potentially worsen the condition. Administering an oral antihistamine (choice B) is not indicated for crepitus at a chest tube site. Assessing for allergies to topical cleaning agents (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority when crepitus is observed.

5. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

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