Nursing Elites

1. An older client with type 1 diabetes arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?

• A. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
• B. Obtain a serum potassium level.
• C. Administer the client's usual dose of insulin.
• D. Assess the pupillary response to light.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client is showing signs of dehydration, such as abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion, which can be exacerbated by hyperglycemia. Rehydration is the initial priority to address the fluid imbalance. Option B, obtaining a serum potassium level, though important in the management of diabetes, is not the immediate priority over rehydration. Option C, administering the client's usual dose of insulin, should only be done after addressing the dehydration and confirming the client's blood glucose levels. Option D, assessing the pupillary response to light, is not the most urgent intervention needed in this situation compared to rehydration to correct fluid imbalance.

2. A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly requests a specific nurse be assigned to him and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests
• B. Assign the nurse requested by the client to avoid further conflict
• C. Tell the client that he can request a different nurse if unhappy
• D. Explain the situation calmly and reinforce the rules regarding nurse assignments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests. In this situation, it is essential to establish boundaries and communicate that nurse assignments are made based on clinical decisions, not patient preferences. Option B is incorrect because it compromises the principle of fairness in nurse assignments. Option C is incorrect as it encourages the client's behavior by allowing him to request a different nurse based on personal preferences. Option D is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of patient manipulation and reinforces inappropriate behavior.

3. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue to monitor the platelet count.
• B. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
• C. Administer platelet transfusion.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.

4. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing paranoia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Reassure the client that their fears are unfounded.
• B. Place the client in a private room to reduce stimuli.
• C. Provide the client with a distraction to redirect their attention.
• D. Encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging clients with paranoia to express their concerns and validating their feelings is crucial as it helps establish trust and reduce anxiety. This approach also aids in building a therapeutic relationship. Reassuring the client that their fears are unfounded (Choice A) may invalidate their feelings and worsen trust. Placing the client in a private room to reduce stimuli (Choice B) may be helpful in some situations but does not address the underlying issue of paranoia. Providing a distraction (Choice C) may temporarily shift the client's focus but does not address the root cause of the paranoia. Therefore, the priority intervention is to encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.

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