HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. An older client with type 1 diabetes arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
- B. Obtain a serum potassium level.
- C. Administer the client's usual dose of insulin.
- D. Assess the pupillary response to light.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client is showing signs of dehydration, such as abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion, which can be exacerbated by hyperglycemia. Rehydration is the initial priority to address the fluid imbalance. Option B, obtaining a serum potassium level, though important in the management of diabetes, is not the immediate priority over rehydration. Option C, administering the client's usual dose of insulin, should only be done after addressing the dehydration and confirming the client's blood glucose levels. Option D, assessing the pupillary response to light, is not the most urgent intervention needed in this situation compared to rehydration to correct fluid imbalance.
2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT).
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
- C. International Normalized Ratio (INR).
- D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is the lab value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in clients with DVT. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is prolonged by heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR) are primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Checking hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is important but does not directly assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in DVT.
3. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?
- A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
- B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
- D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.
4. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
- D. Place the client in a lateral position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.
5. A preschool-aged boy is admitted to the pediatric unit following successful resuscitation from a near-drowning incident. While providing care to the child, the nurse begins talking with his preadolescent brother who rescued the child from the swimming pool and initiated resuscitation. The nurse notices the older boy becomes withdrawn when asked about what happened. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Involve the older brother in supporting the child
- B. Ask the older brother how he felt during the incident
- C. Ask the parents for more information about the brother's behavior
- D. Reassure the brother that everything is fine now
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The older brother's withdrawal likely indicates emotional trauma or stress from the near-drowning event. Asking how he felt provides an opportunity for emotional support and allows the child to express feelings that may need addressing. Involving him in supporting the child may be overwhelming and not address his emotional needs directly. Asking the parents for more information may not allow the older brother to express his own feelings. Simply reassuring him that everything is fine now may dismiss his emotional experience without providing a chance for him to process his feelings.
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