a client is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is placed on isoniazid inh and rifampin rifadin the nurse should emphasize the importance of
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A client is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is placed on isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin). The nurse should emphasize the importance of

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The importance of taking medication as prescribed. In the treatment of tuberculosis, adherence to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial to effectively manage the infection and prevent the development of drug resistance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because bronchodilators, salt intake, and sunlight exposure are not directly related to the treatment of tuberculosis with isoniazid and rifampin.

2. A client presents with three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. What interpretation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Two positive responses on the CAGE questionnaire strongly suggest alcohol dependence. Choice A is incorrect as the CAGE questionnaire specifically targets alcohol abuse. Choice C is incorrect because one positive response is not enough to indicate alcohol addiction. Choice D is incorrect because alcohol dependence can be suggested with two positive responses, not all four.

3. Which of these clients, all in the terminal stage of cancer, is least appropriate to suggest the use of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) with a pump?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A preschooler with intermittent alertness episodes is not a suitable candidate for patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) due to their inability to effectively manage the system. In the context of terminal cancer, it is crucial for the patient to be able to utilize the PCA system appropriately to manage pain effectively. Preschoolers may not have the cognitive ability or understanding to operate a PCA pump compared to the other clients. Choices A, B, and C present clients with conditions that do not inherently impede their ability to use a PCA pump effectively.

4. A client with hypocalcemia is receiving calcium gluconate. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Wheezing and stridor may indicate a severe allergic reaction to calcium gluconate, such as anaphylaxis, which requires immediate intervention. While hypocalcemia can present with decreased deep tendon reflexes and positive Chvostek's sign, these findings do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Decreased bowel sounds are not directly related to a severe reaction to calcium gluconate and do not require immediate intervention.

5. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.

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