a client is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is placed on isoniazid inh and rifampin rifadin the nurse should emphasize the importance of
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. A client is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is placed on isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (Rifadin). The nurse should emphasize the importance of

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The importance of taking medication as prescribed. In the treatment of tuberculosis, adherence to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial to effectively manage the infection and prevent the development of drug resistance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because bronchodilators, salt intake, and sunlight exposure are not directly related to the treatment of tuberculosis with isoniazid and rifampin.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking warfarin should avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting their healthcare provider, as these can interact with warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin, in particular, can exacerbate this risk. Choice A is incorrect because taking warfarin with aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as while green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K which can interact with warfarin, it is more important to maintain a consistent intake rather than increase it. Choice C is incorrect because foods high in potassium do not directly impact the bleeding risk associated with warfarin.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

5. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with altered renal function being treated at home, weekly weight is the most accurate indicator of fluid balance. Fluid retention or loss can significantly affect weight, making it a reliable measure. Choices A, B, and C are not as accurate indicators of fluid balance as weekly weight. Intake and output differences can vary in accuracy and may not capture all aspects of fluid balance. Changes in mucous membranes and skin turgor can be influenced by factors other than fluid balance, making them less precise indicators.

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