HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. The client is 30 weeks pregnant and experiencing preterm labor. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to promote fetal lung maturity?
- A. Betamethasone (Celestone).
- B. Magnesium sulfate.
- C. Terbutaline (Brethine).
- D. Ampicillin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Betamethasone (Celestone) is the medication of choice to promote fetal lung maturity in cases of preterm labor. It helps accelerate surfactant production in the fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Administering betamethasone to the mother can improve the baby's lung function and overall outcome if preterm birth occurs. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or eclampsia. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to suppress preterm labor contractions. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for various bacterial infections but does not promote fetal lung maturity.
2. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?
- A. Gestational diabetes.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Urinary tract infection.
- D. Swelling in lower extremities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.
3. Which physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?
- A. Unilateral lower leg pain.
- B. Saturating two perineal pads per hour.
- C. Pulse rate of 56 bpm.
- D. Soft, spongy fundus.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pulse rate of 56 bpm is a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Bradycardia (pulse rate 50-70 bpm) can be a normal postpartum occurrence due to increased stroke volume and decreased cardiac output after delivery. Unilateral lower leg pain and saturating two perineal pads per hour are not normal findings and require further assessment. A soft, spongy fundus could indicate uterine atony, which is abnormal postpartum.
4. A client who is 32 weeks' gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Inspect the client's face for edema.
- B. Ascertain the frequency of headaches.
- C. Evaluate for a history of cluster headaches.
- D. Observe and time the client's contractions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inspecting the client's face for edema is crucial to assess for preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. Edema, particularly facial edema, can be a significant indicator of preeclampsia, prompting the need for further evaluation and management to ensure the well-being of both the client and the unborn child.
5. The parents of a 3-year-old boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) ask, 'How can our son have this disease? We are wondering if we should have any more children.' What information should the nurse provide these parents?
- A. This is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder, which primarily affects male children in the family.
- B. The male infant had a viral infection that went unnoticed and untreated, leading to muscle damage.
- C. The lack of the protein dystrophin in the mother can impact the XXX muscle groups of males.
- D. Spinal cord damage due to birth trauma during a breech vaginal birth weakens the muscles.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disorder, meaning the gene mutation causing DMD is located on the X chromosome. Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so if the X chromosome they inherit from their mother carries the mutated gene, they will develop DMD. Females have two X chromosomes, so they are carriers of the gene but are usually not affected by the disease. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the parents that DMD is an inherited X-linked recessive disorder that primarily affects male children in the family.
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