the nurse is caring for a female client who is 30 weeks pregnant and experiencing preterm labor which medication should the nurse anticipate administe
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Maternity HESI Quizlet

1. The client is 30 weeks pregnant and experiencing preterm labor. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to promote fetal lung maturity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Betamethasone (Celestone) is the medication of choice to promote fetal lung maturity in cases of preterm labor. It helps accelerate surfactant production in the fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Administering betamethasone to the mother can improve the baby's lung function and overall outcome if preterm birth occurs. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or eclampsia. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to suppress preterm labor contractions. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for various bacterial infections but does not promote fetal lung maturity.

2. A new mother who is breastfeeding her 4-week-old infant and has type 1 diabetes reports that her insulin needs have decreased since the birth of her child. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. During breastfeeding, insulin needs often decrease due to the metabolic demands of milk production. Therefore, the nurse should inform the client that this decrease in insulin requirements is a normal response to breastfeeding. Choice B is incorrect as increasing caloric intake is not directly related to the decrease in insulin needs during breastfeeding. Choice C is incorrect as advising the client to breastfeed more frequently does not address the issue of decreased insulin needs. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling an appointment with the diabetic nurse educator is not necessary at this point since the decreased need for insulin is a common physiological response to breastfeeding.

3. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

4. A male infant with a 2-day history of fever and diarrhea is brought to the clinic by his mother, who tells the nurse that the child refuses to drink anything. The nurse determines that the child has a weak cry with no tears. Which intervention is most important to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Infusing normal saline intravenously is crucial to treat dehydration caused by fever and diarrhea. In this scenario, the infant's weak cry with no tears indicates severe dehydration, necessitating rapid fluid replacement via intravenous normal saline to restore fluid balance and prevent complications.

5. The client is admitted in active labor with a cervix that is 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part at 0 station. An hour later, the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize determining cervical dilation as it helps in assessing the progress of labor and ensures it is safe for the client to move. Changes in cervical dilation may indicate the advancement of labor, warranting appropriate interventions or restrictions on movement to prevent complications. While checking the client's bladder may be important to ensure it's not distended, determining cervical dilation takes precedence in this scenario. Checking the pH of the vaginal fluid is not relevant in this situation, and reviewing the fetal heart rate pattern, although important, is not the first action to take when the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom.

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