Nursing Elites

1. The client is 30 weeks pregnant and experiencing preterm labor. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to promote fetal lung maturity?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone).
• B. Magnesium sulfate.
• C. Terbutaline (Brethine).
• D. Ampicillin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Betamethasone (Celestone) is the medication of choice to promote fetal lung maturity in cases of preterm labor. It helps accelerate surfactant production in the fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Administering betamethasone to the mother can improve the baby's lung function and overall outcome if preterm birth occurs. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or eclampsia. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to suppress preterm labor contractions. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for various bacterial infections but does not promote fetal lung maturity.

2. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor with spontaneous rupture of amniotic membranes at home, in active labor, and feeling the urge to push. What information should the nurse prioritize obtaining?

• A. Color and consistency of fluid.
• B. Estimated amount of fluid.
• C. Any odor noted at the rupture of membranes.
• D. Time of membrane rupture.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the color and consistency of amniotic fluid is crucial as it can indicate the presence of meconium, which suggests potential fetal distress. This information guides the need for further assessments and interventions to ensure the well-being of the mother and fetus. Estimating the amount of fluid is not as critical as determining the color and consistency to identify fetal distress. While noting any odor is important, it is secondary to assessing the fluid itself. Knowing the time of membrane rupture is helpful but not as crucial as evaluating the characteristics of the amniotic fluid.

3. During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn's scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?

• A. Observe the urethral opening on the surface of the penis when the newborn voids.
• B. Perform transillumination of the scrotal sac to visualize shadows of the testes.
• C. Use a fingertip to palpate the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis.
• D. Measure the size of the scrotal sac for length and width.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the testes are not palpated in the scrotum, the next step is to check the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis. This technique allows the nurse to determine if the testes are located within the inguinal canal rather than the scrotum. It is essential to assess for the presence of testes in the inguinal canal to ensure proper diagnosis and management of any potential issues related to testicular positioning.

4. A woman who delivered a 9-pound baby via cesarean section under spinal anesthesia is recovering in the post-anesthesia care unit. Her fundus is firm at the umbilicus, and a continuous trickle of bright red blood with no clots is observed by the nurse. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Assess her blood pressure.
• B. Apply an ice pack to the perineum.
• C. Allow the infant to breastfeed.
• D. Massage the fundus vigorously.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, continuous bleeding despite a firm fundus suggests a possible laceration. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to assess the woman's blood pressure. This helps determine the severity of blood loss and guides further interventions, such as identifying the need for additional assessments or interventions to control bleeding. Applying an ice pack to the perineum (choice B) would not address the ongoing bleeding issue. Allowing the infant to breastfeed (choice C) may not be safe if there is significant bleeding. Massaging the fundus vigorously (choice D) is contraindicated when there is continuous bleeding as it can worsen the bleeding or cause further harm.

5. A pregnant woman in her first trimester is experiencing watery vaginal discharge. What should the nurse tell her?

• A. Inform her that it is normal.
• B. Advise her to see a doctor immediately.
• C. Suggest using panty liners.
• D. Suggest a change in diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Informing the pregnant woman that watery vaginal discharge is normal during the first trimester is crucial to providing reassurance and reducing anxiety. This discharge, known as leukorrhea, is common during pregnancy due to increased estrogen levels and increased blood flow to the pelvic area. It helps maintain a healthy balance of bacteria in the vagina and protects the birth canal from infection. Advising the woman to see a doctor immediately may cause unnecessary alarm, while suggesting the use of panty liners can help manage the discharge comfortably. Suggesting a change in diet is not relevant to addressing watery vaginal discharge in this scenario.

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