the nurse is caring for a female client who is 30 weeks pregnant and experiencing preterm labor which medication should the nurse anticipate administe
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HESI RN

Maternity HESI Quizlet

1. The client is 30 weeks pregnant and experiencing preterm labor. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to promote fetal lung maturity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Betamethasone (Celestone) is the medication of choice to promote fetal lung maturity in cases of preterm labor. It helps accelerate surfactant production in the fetal lungs, reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Administering betamethasone to the mother can improve the baby's lung function and overall outcome if preterm birth occurs. Magnesium sulfate is commonly used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or eclampsia. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to suppress preterm labor contractions. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for various bacterial infections but does not promote fetal lung maturity.

2. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where an infant regurgitates and turns cyanotic, the priority action should be to clear any potential airway obstruction. Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is crucial to ensure the infant's airway is clear and allow for proper breathing. This intervention takes precedence over providing oxygen, stimulating the infant to cry, or repositioning the infant.

3. Just after delivery, a new mother tells the nurse, 'I was unsuccessful breastfeeding my first child, but I would like to try with this baby.' Which intervention is best for the LPN/LVN to implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to provide immediate assistance to the mother to begin breastfeeding as soon as possible after delivery. This approach helps initiate bonding and successful breastfeeding. Taking action promptly can address the mother's desire to breastfeed and promote positive outcomes for both the mother and the newborn.

4. During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn's scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: If the testes are not palpated in the scrotum, the next step is to check the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis. This technique allows the nurse to determine if the testes are located within the inguinal canal rather than the scrotum. It is essential to assess for the presence of testes in the inguinal canal to ensure proper diagnosis and management of any potential issues related to testicular positioning.

5. The client is 24 weeks gestation and reports increased thirst and urination. Which diagnostic test result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result is indicative of gestational diabetes. This test is crucial in diagnosing gestational diabetes as it evaluates how well the body processes glucose after a sugary drink. Reporting abnormal results promptly allows for timely intervention and management to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. The other options are not the primary tests used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Hemoglobin A1C is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes as it reflects long-term glucose control. Postprandial blood glucose and fasting blood glucose tests are not as sensitive as the oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosing gestational diabetes.

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