Nursing Elites

1. The client with the sexually transmitted disease HPV reports having had prior sexually transmitted infections. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of transmission.
• B. Instruct the client of the importance of notifying sexual partners.
• C. Reassure that complications will not occur if infection is treated.
• D. Provide counseling that most contraceptives prevent against infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client about the importance of notifying sexual partners is crucial when dealing with sexually transmitted infections like HPV. This helps prevent the spread of the infection to others and promotes responsible sexual behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while using safe sex practices is important, notifying sexual partners is more immediate and directly related to preventing the spread of the infection. Reassuring about complications and discussing contraceptives do not address the immediate need to notify partners.

2. The healthcare professional is planning a health fair to promote cancer awareness and prevention. Which activity is most likely to increase participation?

• A. offering free cancer screenings
• B. distributing pamphlets on cancer prevention
• C. hosting a guest speaker who is a cancer survivor
• D. providing informational booths on different types of cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering free cancer screenings is the most likely activity to increase participation in the health fair. Providing direct services such as screenings not only attracts participants but also promotes early detection, which is crucial in cancer prevention. Distributing pamphlets, hosting a guest speaker, or providing informational booths are informative but may not have the same impact in driving participation as the opportunity for free screenings.

3. After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, a male client is admitted to the coronary care unit. Which nursing diagnosis is of the highest priority?

• A. Ineffective breathing pattern.
• B. Impaired gas exchange.
• C. Acute pain.
• D. Risk for infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Impaired gas exchange is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because it directly impacts the client's oxygenation. Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery, ensuring adequate oxygen exchange is crucial for the client's recovery. Ineffective breathing pattern, although important, may not be as critical as impaired gas exchange in the immediate postoperative period. Acute pain, while significant, can be managed effectively with appropriate interventions and is not as emergent as addressing impaired gas exchange. Risk for infection is also a valid concern post-surgery, but ensuring optimal gas exchange takes precedence to prevent complications associated with inadequate oxygenation.

4. A public health nurse is planning a vaccination clinic for a rural community. Which vaccine should the nurse prioritize for adults in this area?

• A. hepatitis A
• B. influenza
• C. varicella
• D. measles, mumps, rubella (MMR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: influenza.' Influenza vaccination is crucial for adults, particularly in rural areas where access to healthcare may be limited. Influenza can cause serious illness and complications, and vaccination helps protect individuals and prevent the spread of the virus. While vaccines for hepatitis A, varicella, and measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) are important, prioritizing influenza vaccination in this scenario is essential due to its seasonal prevalence and potential impact on public health. Hepatitis A and varicella vaccines are also important but may not be as immediately critical for this population. MMR vaccine is typically administered in childhood, so it is not the priority for adults in this scenario.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which intervention is most important?

• A. Restrict fluids to 1,000 mL per day.
• B. Administer a vasopressin antagonist.
• C. Monitor intake and output.
• D. Encourage a high-sodium diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a vasopressin antagonist is the most critical intervention for a client with SIADH. SIADH is characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A vasopressin antagonist helps manage the symptoms by blocking the effects of ADH, promoting water excretion, and restoring electrolyte balance. Restricting fluids (choice A) may exacerbate hyponatremia, monitoring intake and output (choice C) is important but not the most critical intervention, and encouraging a high-sodium diet (choice D) is contraindicated in SIADH due to the risk of worsening hyponatremia.

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