Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum calcium level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium level. When a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy, the nurse should closely monitor the serum potassium level. Erythropoietin therapy can stimulate red blood cell production, leading to an increased demand for potassium. This increases the risk of hyperkalemia, making it crucial to monitor potassium levels closely. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy primarily affects red blood cell production, not hemoglobin, white blood cell count, or serum calcium levels.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum triglycerides
• C. Serum glucose
• D. Serum triglycerides

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum triglycerides should be monitored closely in a client receiving TPN as they may indicate hyperlipidemia, which is a potential complication of TPN. Monitoring serum triglycerides is essential to prevent complications such as hypertriglyceridemia. Serum calcium and glucose levels are also important to monitor in clients receiving TPN, but in this scenario, serum triglycerides take priority due to the risk of hyperlipidemia.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dl

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting events. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, INR is a more precise indicator of therapeutic levels. Serum sodium level and hemoglobin level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peaked T waves on the ECG
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peaked T waves on the ECG are a critical finding in hyperkalemia as they indicate potential life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent cardiac complications such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation. Bradycardia, decreased deep tendon reflexes, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with hyperkalemia and do not pose the same level of immediate risk to the client's life.

5. A client is admitted with a possible myocardial infarction. Which laboratory test result is most indicative of a myocardial infarction?

• A. Serum creatine kinase (CK)
• B. Serum troponin
• C. Serum myoglobin
• D. C-reactive protein (CRP)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serum troponin is the most specific and sensitive indicator of myocardial infarction. Troponin levels rise within 3-4 hours after myocardial damage, peak at 10-24 hours, and remain elevated for up to 10-14 days. Creatine kinase (CK) and myoglobin can also be elevated in myocardial infarction, but troponin is more specific to cardiac muscle damage. C-reactive protein (CRP) is a marker of inflammation and is not specific for myocardial infarction.

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