Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.5
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Headache
• D. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A headache in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation receiving warfarin (Coumadin) is concerning as it may indicate bleeding, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Headaches can be a symptom of increased intracranial pressure due to bleeding, especially in patients on anticoagulants. Options A and B are within acceptable ranges for a client on warfarin therapy, indicating that the medication is effectively managing the clotting times. Option D, a blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not directly related to the client's condition of atrial fibrillation and warfarin therapy.

2. When finding a client sitting on the floor, the nurse calls for help from the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task should the nurse ask the UAP to do?

• A. Check for any abrasions or bruises.
• B. Help the client to stand.
• C. Get a blood pressure cuff.
• D. Report the fall to the nurse-manager.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct task for the nurse to ask the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to do in this situation is to "Get a blood pressure cuff." This is important because assessing the client's vital signs, including blood pressure, is crucial after a fall to ensure there are no underlying issues like hypotension. Choices A and B may be important tasks for the nurse to perform as part of the assessment and care of the client. However, in this scenario, the immediate concern should be to check the client's blood pressure. Choice D is not the most urgent task at this time, as assessing the client's condition takes precedence.

3. A male client with cancer who has lost 10 pounds during the last months tells the nurse that beef, chicken, and eggs, which used to be his favorite foods, now taste 'bitter'. He complains that he simply has no appetite. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Suggest the use of alternative sources of protein such as dairy products and nuts.
• B. Encourage the client to eat smaller, more frequent meals.
• C. Offer nutritional supplements between meals.
• D. Discuss the possibility of appetite stimulants with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering alternative protein sources like dairy products and nuts can help maintain nutrition when the client finds certain foods unpalatable, as in this case where beef, chicken, and eggs taste 'bitter'. Encouraging smaller, more frequent meals may not address the issue of unpalatable foods. Offering nutritional supplements between meals may not specifically address the problem of protein intake. Discussing appetite stimulants should be considered after exploring less invasive options first.

4. A client with gestational diabetes, at 39 weeks of gestation, is in the second stage of labor. After delivering the fetal head, the nurse recognizes that shoulder dystocia is occurring. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean birth
• B. Encourage the client to move to a hands-and-knees position
• C. Assist the client to sharply flex her thighs up against the abdomen
• D. Lower the head of the bed and apply suprapubic pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of shoulder dystocia, the priority intervention is to assist the client in sharply flexing her thighs up against the abdomen (McRoberts maneuver). This action helps to widen the pelvic outlet. Encouraging the client to move to a hands-and-knees position may also be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention. Preparing for an emergency cesarean birth and applying suprapubic pressure are not appropriate initial interventions for shoulder dystocia.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates hyperkalemia, requiring immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias, which can exacerbate heart failure. Serum creatinine of 1.5 mg/dL is slightly elevated but not as immediately concerning as hyperkalemia. Serum sodium of 136 mEq/L is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL is also within the normal range and not directly related to the client's left-sided heart failure.

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