Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube to continuous suction. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypercalcemia.
• B. Hypokalemia.
• C. Hyponatremia.
• D. Hypomagnesemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. When a client has a nasogastric tube to continuous suction, potassium loss through gastric fluids can lead to hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with continuous suction. Hyponatremia (Choice C) involves sodium imbalance and is not directly related to nasogastric suction. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) is not the primary concern in this situation, as potassium loss is more significant with gastric suction.

2. The healthcare professional is developing a program to promote healthy eating habits in a community with high rates of obesity. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. distributing educational pamphlets about nutrition
• B. offering cooking classes that focus on healthy recipes
• C. launching a social media campaign about the risks of obesity
• D. providing free health screenings at community events

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Offering cooking classes that focus on healthy recipes is the most effective strategy among the choices provided. These classes not only provide valuable knowledge about nutrition but also offer hands-on experience in preparing healthy meals. This practical approach can significantly impact participants' behavior and increase the likelihood of them adopting healthier eating habits. Distributing educational pamphlets may not have the same level of engagement and interaction as cooking classes. A social media campaign, while informative, may not result in direct behavioral changes. Providing free health screenings, though beneficial for early detection, does not directly address the promotion of healthy eating habits, unlike the hands-on approach of cooking classes.

3. During a home visit, the nurse observes that an elderly client has numerous bruises on her arms and appears fearful of her caregiver. What should the nurse do first?

• A. report the findings to adult protective services
• B. ask the client how she got the bruises
• C. document the observations in the client's medical record
• D. discuss the observations with the caregiver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The initial step for the nurse should be to ask the client how she got the bruises. This approach allows the nurse to directly assess the situation, gather information from the client, and potentially uncover signs of abuse. Reporting to adult protective services should come after obtaining more details from the client to ensure appropriate action. Documenting the observations is important but should follow gathering information from the client. Discussing the observations with the caregiver may not be appropriate as the caregiver could be the source of abuse, and involving them first may jeopardize the client's safety.

4. The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor.
• C. I will keep all appointments for blood tests.
• D. I will avoid participating in contact sports.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because participating in contact sports can increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a client receiving warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner, and activities with a higher risk of injury should be avoided to prevent bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels, using a soft toothbrush and an electric razor reduces the risk of bleeding gums and cuts, and keeping appointments for blood tests ensures proper monitoring of the client's international normalized ratio (INR) levels.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing.
• C. Respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute.
• D. Barrel-shaped chest.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute is an abnormal finding and indicates that the client is experiencing respiratory distress, requiring immediate intervention. This rapid respiratory rate can signify inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Oxygen saturation of 88% is low but not as immediately concerning as a high respiratory rate, which indicates the body is compensating for respiratory distress. The use of accessory muscles for breathing and a barrel-shaped chest are typical findings in clients with COPD but do not indicate an immediate need for intervention as they are more chronic in nature and may be seen in stable COPD patients.

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