Nursing Elites

1. Who is likely to have the most influence on these women's perceptions about their children's healthcare needs?

• A. husbands
• B. clinic healthcare provider
• C. older females
• D. tribal chief

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In many cultures, older women, such as grandmothers or aunts, hold significant influence over health-related decisions and practices within the family. They are often the ones consulted for advice on healthcare matters concerning children. Husbands (choice A) may have influence in other areas, but when it comes to healthcare decisions for children, older females are typically more influential. Clinic healthcare providers (choice B) may offer guidance, but the influence of older females within the community is usually stronger. Tribal chiefs (choice D) may hold authority but might not be as directly involved in individual healthcare decisions within families as older females.

2. A school nurse is developing a program to address bullying among students. Which component is most important to include?

• A. education on the effects of bullying
• B. training for teachers on how to handle bullying incidents
• C. a peer mentoring program
• D. a zero-tolerance policy for bullying

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Training for teachers is the most important component to include in addressing bullying among students. Teachers play a crucial role in identifying, intervening, and preventing bullying incidents. By providing teachers with training on how to handle bullying, they can effectively address such situations, support victims, and educate students on appropriate behavior. While education on the effects of bullying (Choice A) is important, teachers need practical skills to intervene. Peer mentoring programs (Choice C) and zero-tolerance policies (Choice D) are valuable but may not be as effective without teachers being equipped to address bullying incidents directly.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

4. The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor.
• C. I will keep all appointments for blood tests.
• D. I will avoid participating in contact sports.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because participating in contact sports can increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a client receiving warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner, and activities with a higher risk of injury should be avoided to prevent bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels, using a soft toothbrush and an electric razor reduces the risk of bleeding gums and cuts, and keeping appointments for blood tests ensures proper monitoring of the client's international normalized ratio (INR) levels.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) to a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment is most important before initiating the infusion?

• A. Lung sounds and respiratory status.
• B. Skin integrity and color.
• C. Neurological status and level of consciousness.
• D. Cardiac rate and rhythm.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, "Cardiac rate and rhythm." Monitoring cardiac rate and rhythm is crucial before initiating IVIG because bradycardia is a common side effect associated with this therapy. Assessing lung sounds and respiratory status (Choice A) is important, but cardiac monitoring takes precedence due to the risk of bradycardia. Skin integrity and color (Choice B) are important assessments, but they are not directly related to potential complications of IVIG infusion. Neurological status and level of consciousness (Choice C) are also vital assessments, but monitoring cardiac function is more pertinent in this scenario.

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