Nursing Elites

1. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?

• A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
• B. On the left side with legs elevated.
• C. On the right side with legs elevated.
• D. Prone with head elevated.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.

2. A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Hold the medication.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Administer the medication.
• D. Check the blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to administer the medication. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly used post-myocardial infarction to reduce the workload of the heart. The client's apical pulse of 65 beats per minute is within the acceptable range after a myocardial infarction. Holding the medication or calling the healthcare provider is not necessary in this scenario as the pulse rate is appropriate for administering atenolol. Checking the blood pressure is not the priority in this situation, as the focus should be on the heart rate when administering atenolol.

3. A public health nurse is implementing a program to improve vaccination rates among children in the community. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?

• A. Offering vaccinations at convenient locations and times
• B. Distributing educational materials about vaccines
• C. Providing incentives for getting vaccinated
• D. Hosting informational sessions for parents

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering vaccinations at convenient locations and times is the most effective intervention as it reduces barriers to access and makes it easier for parents to get their children vaccinated. This strategy directly addresses the issue of convenience and accessibility, which are common reasons for low vaccination rates. Distributing educational materials about vaccines (Choice B) can be helpful but may not directly address access issues. Providing incentives for getting vaccinated (Choice C) may be controversial and not sustainable in the long term. Hosting informational sessions for parents (Choice D) can be beneficial for education but may not directly improve vaccination rates as much as increasing access.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL.
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. Temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Decreased urine output in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) requires immediate intervention because it can indicate potential complications such as fluid overload or kidney dysfunction. Monitoring urine output is crucial in assessing renal function and fluid balance in patients on TPN. A blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL is within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours could be a concern but may not be as urgent as addressing decreased urine output. A temperature of 100.3°F (37.9°C) is slightly elevated but may not be directly related to TPN administration unless there are other symptoms of infection present.

5. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.

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