Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new colostomy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods that cause gas.
• B. I will change my colostomy bag every week.
• C. I will use a skin barrier to protect the skin around the stoma.
• D. I will empty my colostomy bag when it is one-third full.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Changing the colostomy bag every week is not sufficient; it should be changed more frequently to prevent leakage and skin irritation. Option A is correct as avoiding foods that cause gas can help manage colostomy-related symptoms. Option C is correct as using a skin barrier helps protect the skin around the stoma. Option D is correct as emptying the colostomy bag when it is one-third full helps prevent leakage and discomfort.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

4. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?

• A. contributes money to a professional society or organization
• B. maintains chairmanship of the hospital nursing council
• C. documents the nursing process in care management
• D. develops policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because developing policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety demonstrates leadership and proficiency in contributing to the field. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to professionalism criteria in the context of occupational health nursing. Contributing money to a professional society, maintaining chairmanship of a nursing council, or documenting the nursing process, while important, do not specifically highlight the nurse's impact on occupational health and safety through policy development.

5. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce the incidence of diabetes in the community. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased participation in diabetes education sessions
• B. higher rates of blood glucose monitoring
• C. reduced incidence of diabetes-related complications
• D. greater knowledge of diabetes prevention methods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'reduced incidence of diabetes-related complications.' This outcome indicates that the program is successful because it shows that individuals are effectively managing their condition, leading to fewer complications. Increased participation in education sessions (choice A) and higher rates of blood glucose monitoring (choice B) are important but are more process indicators rather than direct outcomes of improved health. Greater knowledge of prevention methods (choice D) is beneficial but may not directly reflect a reduction in diabetes incidence or complications.

Similar Questions