Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

2. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

3. The healthcare professional is preparing a presentation on the impact of substance abuse on families. Which approach is most effective for engaging the audience?

• A. showing statistical data on substance abuse rates
• B. sharing personal stories from individuals affected by substance abuse
• C. distributing informational brochures on substance abuse
• D. providing a list of local substance abuse treatment centers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharing personal stories from individuals affected by substance abuse is the most effective approach for engaging the audience. Personal stories evoke emotions, create empathy, and make the impact of substance abuse more relatable and tangible for the audience. This approach helps in fostering a deeper understanding of the real-life consequences of substance abuse on families. The other options, such as showing statistical data (choice A), distributing informational brochures (choice C), and providing a list of treatment centers (choice D), may be informative but may not engage the audience on an emotional level as effectively as personal stories.

4. A client presents at a community-based clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, headache, often uses a gasoline-powered pressure washer to clean equipment and farm buildings. Which type of poisoning is the most likely etiology of this client's symptoms?

• A. asbestos
• B. silica dust
• C. histoplasmosis
• D. carbon monoxide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, carbon monoxide poisoning. This client's symptoms of shortness of breath and headache are consistent with carbon monoxide exposure, which can result from using gasoline-powered equipment in poorly ventilated areas. Asbestos (choice A) is linked to respiratory issues but does not typically present with these acute symptoms. Silica dust (choice B) exposure is associated with lung damage, not the symptoms described. Histoplasmosis (choice C) is a fungal infection and would not typically manifest with the symptoms presented by the client.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with acute renal failure. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Blood pressure of 180/100 mm Hg.
• B. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours.
• C. Heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
• D. Nausea and vomiting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of worsening renal function and requires immediate intervention. In acute renal failure, maintaining adequate urine output is crucial to prevent further kidney damage and manage fluid balance. A high blood pressure reading (Option A) is concerning but may not require immediate intervention in this scenario as it could be due to the history of hypertension. A heart rate of 100 beats per minute (Option C) is slightly elevated but may not be the most critical finding at this moment. Nausea and vomiting (Option D) are important to assess but are not as urgent as addressing oliguria in a client with acute renal failure.

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