HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an IV infusion of normal saline and notices that the infusion is not flowing. The insertion site is not inflamed or swollen. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check the tubing for kinks or obstructions.
- B. Increase the flow rate to improve the infusion.
- C. Reinsert the IV catheter in another vein.
- D. Call the physician for further instructions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when an IV infusion is not flowing despite a normal insertion site is to check the tubing for kinks or obstructions. This step is crucial to ensure that there are no preventable issues impeding the flow of the IV solution. Increasing the flow rate without addressing potential obstructions could lead to complications such as infiltration. Reinserting the IV catheter in another vein should only be considered after ruling out tubing issues. Calling the physician for further instructions is not necessary at this stage as troubleshooting the tubing should be the initial intervention.
2. What information will the nurse provide when counseling a patient starting a sulfonamide drug for a urinary tract infection?
- A. Drink several quarts of water daily.
- B. If stomach upset occurs, avoid taking antacids.
- C. Limit sun exposure to avoid skin reactions.
- D. Report any sore throat promptly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drink several quarts of water daily. This advice aims to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of sulfonamide drugs. Option B is incorrect because antacids should not be taken with sulfonamides as they can decrease drug absorption. Option C is incorrect as sulfonamides can increase sensitivity to sunlight, not requiring sun exposure limitations but sun protection measures. Option D is incorrect because a sore throat could indicate a more serious adverse effect and should be promptly reported for evaluation.
3. Which of the following is the best indicator of long-term glycemic control in a patient with diabetes?
- A. Fasting blood glucose levels.
- B. Postprandial blood glucose levels.
- C. Hemoglobin A1c.
- D. Random blood glucose levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hemoglobin A1c. Hemoglobin A1c measures the average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, providing a reliable indicator of long-term glycemic control. Fasting blood glucose levels (choice A) only offer a snapshot of the current glucose level and can fluctuate throughout the day. Postprandial blood glucose levels (choice B) reflect glucose levels after meals but do not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Random blood glucose levels (choice D) are taken at any time and lack the consistency needed to assess long-term glycemic control effectively. Therefore, Hemoglobin A1c is the superior choice for monitoring and managing diabetes over an extended period.
4. The client is scheduled to begin continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates that more teaching is required?
- A. I will need to limit my intake of protein.
- B. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
- C. I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Skipping a dialysis session can lead to serious complications as it disrupts the treatment schedule and can result in the accumulation of waste products and fluid in the body. The client must understand the importance of adhering to the prescribed dialysis regimen to maintain optimal health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because limiting protein intake, increasing potassium-rich foods, and taking medications do not pose the same risk as skipping dialysis sessions. These aspects are important in the management of peritoneal dialysis but do not outweigh the critical need for regular dialysis sessions to prevent complications.
5. A client is receiving Cilostazol (Pletal) for peripheral arterial disease causing intermittent claudication. The nurse determines this medication is effective when the client reports which of the following?
- A. I am having fewer aches and pains.
- B. I do not have headaches anymore.
- C. I am able to walk further without leg pain.
- D. My toes are turning grayish black in color.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cilostazol improves blood flow to the muscles, which helps alleviate symptoms of intermittent claudication. An improvement in walking distance without leg pain indicates the effectiveness of the medication. Choices A and B are not directly related to the expected outcome of Cilostazol therapy for intermittent claudication. Choice D is concerning for a potential adverse effect and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately.
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