Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client who is dying for signs of impending death, what should the nurse observe for?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
• C. Elevated pulse rate
• D. Decreased temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client for signs of impending death, the nurse should observe for Cheyne-Stokes respiration. This pattern involves rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep breathing to very shallow breathing with periods of temporary apnea. It is often associated with cardiac failure and can be a significant indicator of impending death. Elevated blood pressure and pulse rate are not typical signs of impending death; in fact, they may indicate other conditions. A decreased temperature is also not a common sign of impending death, as temperature changes can vary among individuals and may not always correlate with the dying process.

2. Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An example is:

• A. thyroxine to treat thyroid cancer.
• B. ACTH to treat adrenal carcinoma.
• C. estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer.
• D. glucagon to treat pancreatic carcinoma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen antagonists are commonly used to treat estrogen hormone-dependent cancers such as breast carcinoma. One well-known estrogen antagonist used in breast cancer therapy is Tamoxifen (Nolvadex). This drug, in combination with surgery and other chemotherapeutic drugs, reduces breast cancer recurrence by 30%. Estrogen antagonists can also be administered to prevent breast cancer in women who have a strong family history. Thyroxine is a thyroid hormone used to treat hypothyroidism, not thyroid cancer. ACTH is an anterior pituitary hormone that stimulates the adrenal glands to release glucocorticoids; it does not treat adrenal cancer. Glucagon is a pancreatic alpha cell hormone that stimulates glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; it does not treat pancreatic cancer.

3. A 26-year-old single woman is knocked down and robbed while walking her dog one evening. Three months later, she presents at the crisis clinic, stating that she cannot put this experience out of her mind. She complains of nightmares, extreme fear of being outside or alone, and difficulty eating and sleeping. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. "I will ask the physician to prescribe medication for you."?
• B. "That must have been a very difficult and frightening experience. It might be helpful to talk about it."?
• C. "In the future, you might walk your dog in a more populated area or hire someone else to take over this task."?
• D. "Have you thought of moving to a safer neighborhood?"?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the best response as it provides empathy and encourages the client to talk about her experience, which can be therapeutic. This approach validates the client's feelings and offers support. By acknowledging the difficulty and fear experienced by the client, the nurse opens the door for the client to express her emotions and begin the process of coping with the trauma. Choices A, C, and D do not address the emotional impact of the traumatic event or provide an opportunity for the client to express her feelings and concerns. Choice A immediately jumps to medication without exploring other supportive interventions. Choice C focuses on practical solutions without addressing the client's emotional needs. Choice D suggests a drastic solution without considering the client's emotional state or preferences.

4. The licensed practical nurse is working with a registered nurse and a patient care assistant. Which of the following clients should be cared for by the registered nurse?

• A. A client 2 days post-appendectomy
• B. A client 1 week post-thyroidectomy
• C. A client 3 days post-splenectomy
• D. A client 2 days post-thoracotomy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a client 2 days post-thoracotomy because this client is the most critical and requires the expertise of a registered nurse. Clients A and B are stable and ready for discharge after their respective surgeries (appendectomy and thyroidectomy). Client C, who is 3 days post-splenectomy, is also stable enough to be cared for by a licensed practical nurse as they are in a stable condition and do not have immediate critical needs. Therefore, the registered nurse should care for the client 2 days post-thoracotomy due to the critical nature of the procedure and the immediate postoperative care required.

5. Six hours after birth, the infant is found to have an area of swelling over the right parietal area that does not cross the suture line. The nurse should chart this finding as:

• A. A cephalohematoma
• B. Molding
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Caput succedaneum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, a cephalohematoma. A cephalohematoma is an area of bleeding outside the cranium but beneath the periosteum, typically not crossing the suture line. Answer B, molding, is the overlapping of the bones of the cranium and does not involve bleeding, making it an incorrect choice. Answer C, a subdural hematoma, involves intracranial bleeding and is typically diagnosed through imaging studies like a CAT scan or x-ray. Answer D, caput succedaneum, is characterized by edema that crosses the suture line, unlike the described swelling in this case.

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