Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client following an appendectomy. The client reports nausea and complains of surgical site pain at a 6 on a 0 to 10 scale. The client's employer is present in the room and states he is paying for the insurance and wants to know what pain medication has been prescribed by the physician. Which of the following is the appropriate nurse response?

• A. Answer any questions the employer may have as he pays for the insurance.
• B. Tell the employer his question is inappropriate and that the information is none of his business.
• C. Explain to the employer that you cannot release private information and ask the employer to step out while you conduct your assessment of the client.
• D. Ask the employer to leave and wait until the client returns home to visit.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appropriate nurse response is to explain to the employer that private information cannot be released and ask the employer to step out while conducting the assessment. This approach respects the client's privacy while still acknowledging the employer. The employer's payment for insurance does not grant rights to confidential information. Sharing information without permission violates the client's right to privacy under HIPAA. Option A is incorrect as it compromises the client's confidentiality by sharing private medical information. Option B is inappropriate and unprofessional as it does not address the situation respectfully. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's immediate needs and assumes the client's consent without proper communication.

2. What is the best nursing diagnosis for a client with newly diagnosed Diabetes Mellitus?

• A. Impaired Skin Integrity
• B. Knowledge Deficit: New Diabetes Diagnosis
• C. Alteration in Nutrition: More than Body Requirements
• D. Fluid Volume Deficit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Knowledge Deficit: New Diabetes Diagnosis.' Newly diagnosed diabetics require education on their disease, medications, glucose testing, insulin injections, foot care, and sick-day plans. Choices A and D aim to prevent issues that do not currently exist for the client. Choice C, 'Alteration in Nutrition: More than Body Requirements,' is not the priority diagnosis for a newly diagnosed diabetic. While nutritional adjustments may be required for type I or type II diabetes, providing knowledge and education takes precedence at this stage.

3. A client admitted with an episode of bleeding esophageal varices is receiving propranolol (Inderal LA). The nurse knows to monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Arthralgia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Bradycardia.' Propranolol is a beta-blocking agent used to decrease the heart rate. In the case of bleeding esophageal varices, propranolol is given to reduce the risk of bleeding by keeping the heart rate around 55 beats per minute. Monitoring for bradycardia is essential as the medication's intended effect is to lower the heart rate. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because propranolol would not typically cause hypertension, hyperkalemia, or arthralgia.

4. Which of the following is not a primary function of the kidneys?

• A. blood pressure control
• B. vitamin D activation
• C. erythropoietin production
• D. reabsorption of waste products

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is reabsorption of waste products because the kidneys excrete waste products rather than reabsorbing them. Choices A, B, and C are indeed primary functions of the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure, activating vitamin D, and producing erythropoietin, which stimulates red blood cell production. Therefore, the primary role of the kidneys is to filter blood, remove waste products, regulate fluid balance, and maintain electrolyte balance.

5. A patient has suffered a left CVA and developed severe hemiparesis resulting in a loss of mobility. The nurse notices on assessment that an area over the patient's left elbow appears as non-blanchable erythema, and the skin is intact. The nurse should score the patient as having which of the following?

• A. Stage I pressure ulcer
• B. Stage II pressure ulcer
• C. Stage III pressure ulcer
• D. Stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema with the skin intact is characteristic of a Stage I pressure ulcer. At this stage, the skin is not broken, but there is localized redness that does not blanch when pressed. Stage II pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss, Stage III pressure ulcers have full-thickness skin loss, and Stage IV pressure ulcers extend to deeper tissues, including muscle and bone. In this case, the non-blanchable erythema with intact skin aligns with the characteristics of a Stage I pressure ulcer.

Similar Questions