Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client and wants to assess the neurologic function. Which of the following will give the most information?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Doll's eye reflex
• C. Babinski reflex
• D. Reaction to painful stimuli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Level of consciousness.' Assessing the client's level of consciousness provides crucial information about their neurologic function, including subtle changes in verbal ability, orientation, and responsiveness to commands. Doll's eye reflex is a specific eye movement test used in neurologic assessments but may not provide as much comprehensive information as the client's overall consciousness level. The Babinski reflex is a test used to assess specific spinal cord function rather than overall neurologic function. Reaction to painful stimuli provides information about sensory function and pain response but may not offer as much insight into the client's neurologic status as assessing their level of consciousness.

2. How can the nurse promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension?

• A. Encouraging the client to continue their activities as usual.
• B. Immobilizing the client.
• C. Applying heat, cold, pressure, or vibration to the painful area.
• D. Administering pain medication as needed to ease the muscle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To promote relief of muscle pain, spasms, and tension, the nurse should consider applying heat, cold, pressure, or vibration to the painful area. These interventions can help alleviate pain associated with muscle tension, pain, or spasms. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to continue their activities as usual may exacerbate the pain. Choice B is incorrect as immobilizing the client may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to further complications. Choice D is also incorrect because while pain medication can be used, it is not the first-line treatment for muscle pain, spasms, and tension.

3. A patient 3 hours post-op from a hysterectomy is complaining of intense pain at the incision site. When assessing the patient, the nurse notes a BP of 169/93, pulse 145 bpm, and regular. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the patient that pain is normal following surgery.
• B. Administer prn Nifedipine and assess the client's response.
• C. Administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response.
• D. Recheck BP and pulse rate every 20 minutes for the next hour.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer prn Meperidine HCL and assess the client's response. A BP of 169/93 and a pulse of 145 bpm indicate pain-related hypertension and sinus tachycardia, which are physiological responses to pain. Treating the cause of the increased pulse rate requires pain medication. Reassuring the patient about normal post-surgery pain is important, but addressing the physiological responses to pain is a priority. Administering Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is not indicated for pain management but for hypertension. Rechecking the BP and pulse rate without addressing the pain directly does not address the underlying issue causing the elevated vital signs.

4. A 15-year-old high school wrestler has been taking diuretics to lose weight to compete in a lower weight class. Which of the following medical tests is most likely to be given?

• A. Lab values of Potassium and Sodium
• B. Lab values of Glucose and Hemoglobin
• C. ECG
• D. CT scan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Diuretics can disrupt the sodium and potassium balance, potentially leading to cardiac complications. Monitoring the lab values of potassium and sodium is crucial to assess electrolyte imbalances due to diuretic use. Testing glucose and hemoglobin levels is not directly related to diuretic use in this context. An ECG would be indicated if there were signs or symptoms of cardiac abnormalities, but it is not the primary test to monitor the effects of diuretics. A CT scan is not typically used to assess electrolyte imbalances caused by diuretics.

5. High uric acid levels can develop in clients who are receiving chemotherapy. This can be caused by:

• A. the inability of the kidneys to excrete the drug metabolites.
• B. rapid cell catabolism.
• C. toxic effects of the prophylactic antibiotics that are given concurrently.
• D. the altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'rapid cell catabolism.' During chemotherapy, rapid cell destruction occurs, leading to an increase in uric acid levels as a byproduct of cell breakdown. High uric acid levels are primarily a result of the rapid breakdown of cells during chemotherapy, not due to the kidneys' inability to excrete drug metabolites (Choice A). The prophylactic antibiotics given concurrently do not directly cause high uric acid levels (Choice C). The altered blood pH from the acidic nature of the drugs (Choice D) is not a direct cause of elevated uric acid levels; the main mechanism is the rapid cell catabolism that occurs during chemotherapy.

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