HESI RN
Pediatric HESI
1. When caring for a 5-year-old child with a history of seizures who suddenly begins to have a tonic-clonic seizure, what should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Insert an oral airway
- C. Turn the child to the side
- D. Start an IV line
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority action is to turn the child to the side. This helps maintain an open airway and prevents aspiration of secretions or vomitus. It also helps in keeping the airway clear and promotes safety during the seizure episode. Administering oxygen, inserting an oral airway, and starting an IV line are important interventions but should follow the initial step of positioning the child to prevent airway obstruction.
2. A 16-year-old female student with a history of asthma controlled with both an oral antihistamine and an albuterol (ProAir) metered-dose inhaler (MDI) comes to the school nurse. The student complains that she cannot sleep at night, feels shaky, and her heart feels like it is 'beating a mile a minute.' Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. When she last took the antihistamine.
- B. When her last asthma attack occurred.
- C. Duration of most asthma attacks.
- D. How often the MDI is used daily.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial information for the nurse to obtain in this scenario is how often the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is used daily. This information will help assess if the symptoms of insomnia, shakiness, and palpitations are potentially related to overuse of the inhaler, which can cause side effects such as tremors and palpitations. Monitoring the frequency of MDI usage is essential in managing asthma and ensuring appropriate medication administration.
3. In a 6-year-old child with asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and using accessory muscles to breathe with a peak flow reading in the red zone, what should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
- B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
- C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
- D. Contact the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for a 6-year-old child with asthma who is experiencing difficulty breathing, using accessory muscles to breathe, and has a peak flow reading in the red zone is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator first. Nebulized bronchodilators work rapidly to open up the airways, providing immediate relief and improving breathing. This intervention is crucial in addressing the acute respiratory distress the child is facing. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or contacting the healthcare provider can be considered after the initial administration of the bronchodilator, as they are not the primary interventions needed to manage the child's acute respiratory distress.
4. The practical nurse is providing care for a toddler who has just returned from surgery for a tonsillectomy. Which intervention is a priority in the immediate postoperative period?
- A. Offer clear fluids frequently.
- B. Encourage the child to cough and deep breathe.
- C. Monitor for frequent swallowing.
- D. Apply a warm compress to the throat area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring for frequent swallowing is a priority intervention in the immediate postoperative period after a tonsillectomy. Frequent swallowing may indicate bleeding from the surgical site, which requires immediate attention to prevent complications such as hemorrhage. Offering clear fluids frequently may not be appropriate immediately after surgery. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may increase the risk of bleeding. Applying a warm compress to the throat area is not recommended as it can increase blood flow to the surgical site, potentially causing bleeding.
5. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?
- A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
- B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
- C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
- D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.
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