a 6 year old who has asthma is demonstrating a prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing and has a 35 of personal best peak expiratory flow rate pefr ba
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Practice Test Pediatrics

1. A 6 year old who has asthma is demonstrating a prolonged expiratory phase and wheezing and has a 35% of personal best peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR). Based on these findings, what actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator will help open the airways and improve breathing.

2. A child admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis is demonstrating Kussmaul respirations. The nurse determines that the increased respiratory rate is a compensatory mechanism for which acid-base alteration?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breathing patterns observed in metabolic acidosis, such as diabetic ketoacidosis. In this condition, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate to eliminate excess carbon dioxide (CO2) and decrease the acid levels, thereby helping to correct the acid-base imbalance. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic acidosis.

3. A child with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with respiratory distress. Which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering bronchodilators as prescribed is crucial for managing respiratory distress in children with cystic fibrosis. Bronchodilators help to open the airways, facilitating easier breathing for the child. Limiting fluid intake, providing a high-fat diet, or encouraging bed rest only are not appropriate interventions for respiratory distress associated with cystic fibrosis. Limiting fluid intake could worsen dehydration, a high-fat diet is not recommended due to pancreatic insufficiency in cystic fibrosis, and bed rest alone does not address the respiratory distress.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarction of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Coarctation of the aorta causes narrowing of the aorta, reducing blood flow to the lower extremities. This narrowing results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, along with stronger brachial pulses and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanism of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically leads to reduced blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. An 8-year-old male client with nephrotic syndrome is receiving salt-poor human albumin IV. Which findings indicate to the nurse that the child is manifesting a therapeutic response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome treatment, decreased periorbital edema is a positive therapeutic response as it indicates a reduction in fluid retention. Periorbital edema is a common symptom of nephrotic syndrome due to fluid accumulation, so a decrease in this swelling signifies an improvement in the condition.

Similar Questions

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A mother brings her 2-year-old son to the clinic because he has been crying and pulling on his earlobe for the past 12 hours. The child's oral temperature is 101.2°F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?
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