the nurse is caring for a 3 year old child who is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery which assessment finding
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HESI RN

HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam

1. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

2. An adolescent female who is leaning forward with her hands on her knees to breathe tells the practical nurse that she has been using triamcinolone (Azmacort) inhalation aerosol before coming to the clinic. Which action should the PN implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient presents with breathing difficulties, the first action should be to assess vital signs and breath sounds to evaluate the severity of the condition. This assessment will provide crucial information to determine the appropriate course of action and treatment. Collecting a blood sample for a white blood cell count, giving a nebulizer treatment, or administering another dose of Azmacort would not be the initial priority in this situation. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it focuses on assessing the patient's respiratory status to guide further interventions.

3. A 9-year-old child with a history of type 1 diabetes is brought to the clinic for a check-up. The nurse notes that the child's hemoglobin A1c is 8.5%. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A hemoglobin A1c of 8.5% indicates suboptimal diabetes control. The most appropriate action for the nurse in this scenario is to review the child’s dietary habits and insulin administration technique. This approach can help identify potential areas for improvement and optimize diabetes management, aiming to lower the hemoglobin A1c levels towards the target range. Increasing the child’s insulin dose (Choice A) without addressing dietary habits and administration technique may not lead to better control and can increase the risk of hypoglycemia. Switching to oral hypoglycemics (Choice C) is not appropriate for type 1 diabetes management. Scheduling a follow-up appointment in three months (Choice D) without intervening to improve diabetes control is not the best immediate action.

4. Which nursing intervention is most important to include in the plan of care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Weighing the child daily is crucial in managing a child with acute glomerulonephritis as it helps in monitoring fluid retention, which is a key concern in this condition. Daily weight monitoring allows healthcare providers to assess changes in fluid status and adjust treatment accordingly. It is an essential component of the care plan to ensure the child's health status is closely monitored during the management of acute glomerulonephritis. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice A) is generally beneficial but may not be the priority in this case where fluid retention needs close monitoring. Promoting complete bed rest (Choice B) can be important but may not be the most critical intervention. Administering vitamin supplements (Choice D) may not directly address the immediate concerns related to fluid retention in acute glomerulonephritis.

5. A 9-year-old child is brought to the clinic with complaints of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath. The nurse notes that the child has a history of iron-deficiency anemia. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with a history of iron-deficiency anemia presenting with symptoms of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, the priority action for the nurse is to administer iron supplements as prescribed. Iron supplementation is essential to treat iron-deficiency anemia and improve the child's symptoms promptly. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is important but administering iron supplements takes precedence to address the underlying cause. Educating parents about dietary iron sources is valuable for prevention but not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary but should not delay the initiation of treatment with iron supplements.

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