Nursing Elites

1. The child is 3 years old and is 2 hours postop from a cardiac catheterization via the right femoral artery. Which assessment finding indicates arterial obstruction?

• A. Blood pressure is decreasing, and the pulse is rapid and irregular.
• B. The right foot feels cool to the touch and appears pale and blanched.
• C. The pulse distal to the femoral artery is weaker in the left foot than the right foot.
• D. The pressure dressing at the right femoral area is damp and oozing blood.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cool, pale, and blanched foot is indicative of arterial obstruction, leading to poor blood flow. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or necrosis. Monitoring for signs of arterial compromise, such as color changes, temperature, and capillary refill, is crucial in detecting and managing vascular complications post-cardiac catheterization. Choices A, C, and D do not directly indicate arterial obstruction. While a decreasing blood pressure and rapid, irregular pulse may suggest compromise, these findings are more nonspecific. A weaker pulse distal to the femoral artery indicates reduced perfusion but not necessarily arterial obstruction. Finally, a damp, oozing pressure dressing suggests a dressing issue rather than arterial obstruction.

2. The practical nurse (PN) is caring for an adolescent who has been diagnosed with mononucleosis. Which activity should the PN advise the adolescent to avoid?

• A. Playing video games.
• B. Drinking caffeinated beverages.
• C. Participating in contact sports.
• D. Eating spicy foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact sports should be avoided in mononucleosis due to the risk of spleen rupture, which is a serious complication of the disease. The spleen can enlarge in mononucleosis, making it more susceptible to injury from contact sports, potentially leading to a life-threatening situation if rupture occurs.

3. A 7-year-old child with type 1 diabetes is brought to the emergency department with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The nurse notes that the child's blood glucose level is 350 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• B. Administer insulin as prescribed
• C. Monitor the child's urine output
• D. Check the child's urine for ketones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a child with type 1 diabetes presenting with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a high blood glucose level, the priority is to administer IV fluids to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which are crucial in managing diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering insulin without addressing fluid deficits can lead to further complications. While monitoring urine output and checking for ketones are important steps in the care of a child with diabetes, the immediate focus should be on correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances through IV fluid administration to stabilize the child's condition.

4. The nurse is conducting an admission assessment of an 11-month-old infant with CHF who is scheduled for repair of restenosis of coarctation of the aorta that was repaired 4 days after birth. Findings include blood pressure higher in the arms than the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. What pathophysiologic mechanisms support these findings?

• A. The aortic semilunar valve obstructs blood flow into the systemic circulation
• B. The lumen of the aorta reduces the volume of the blood flow to the lower extremities
• C. The pulmonic valve prevents adequate blood volume into the pulmonary circulation
• D. An opening in the atrial septum causes a murmur due to a turbulent left to right shunt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The findings are consistent with coarctation of the aorta, where narrowing of the aorta leads to decreased blood flow to the lower extremities. This results in higher blood pressure in the arms compared to the lower extremities, pounding brachial pulses, and slightly palpable femoral pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the pathophysiological mechanisms of coarctation of the aorta, which specifically involves narrowing of the aortic lumen reducing blood flow to the lower extremities.

5. In a 7-year-old child with a history of asthma experiencing an acute asthma exacerbation and displaying wheezing and the use of accessory muscles to breathe, what is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer a nebulized bronchodilator
• B. Obtain an arterial blood gas
• C. Start the child on oxygen therapy
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a nebulized bronchodilator. During an acute asthma exacerbation in a child with wheezing and increased work of breathing, the priority intervention is to provide immediate bronchodilation to dilate the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. This intervention aims to manage the acute asthma attack effectively and prevent further respiratory distress. Obtaining an arterial blood gas, starting oxygen therapy, or notifying the healthcare provider are important actions, but administering a bronchodilator takes precedence in addressing the acute respiratory compromise.

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