Nursing Elites

1. A 4-month-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother because she has had a cold for 2 to 3 days and woke up this morning with a hacking cough and difficulty breathing. Which additional assessment finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

• A. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds.
• B. Diaphragmatic respiration.
• C. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute.
• D. Flaring of the nares.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a clinical sign of acute respiratory distress in infants. It indicates an increased effort to breathe and is a crucial finding that requires immediate attention, as it signifies the child is having difficulty breathing and may be in respiratory distress. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Bilateral bronchial breath sounds may be present in conditions like pneumonia but do not specifically indicate acute respiratory distress. Diaphragmatic respiration is a normal breathing pattern and not a sign of distress. A resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths per minute in a 4-month-old infant is within the expected range, so it does not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.

2. The mother of a 4-month-old asks the nurse for advice in preventing diaper rash. What suggestion should the nurse provide?

• A. At diaper change generously powder the baby's diaper area with talcum powder to promote dryness.
• B. Wash the diaper area every 2 hours with soap and water to help prevent skin breakdown.
• C. Use a barrier cream, such as zinc oxide, which does not have to be completely removed with each diaper change.
• D. Place a cloth diaper inside the disposable diaper for overnight periods when increased wearing time is likely.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a barrier cream like zinc oxide protects the skin and helps prevent diaper rash.

3. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer morphine sulfate.
• B. Start IV fluids.
• C. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
• D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where an infant with tetralogy of Fallot is acutely cyanotic and hyperpneic, the priority action should be to place the infant in a knee-chest position. This position helps increase systemic vascular resistance, improving pulmonary blood flow and subsequently ameliorating the cyanosis and hyperpnea. It is a non-invasive and effective intervention that can be promptly implemented by the nurse to address the immediate respiratory distress. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as it may cause further respiratory depression. Starting IV fluids (Choice B) may not address the immediate cyanosis and hyperpnea. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but may not be as effective as placing the infant in a knee-chest position to improve blood flow dynamics.

4. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child who has been diagnosed with measles. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent the spread of infection?

• A. Administer antipyretics as prescribed
• B. Place the child in airborne isolation
• C. Encourage fluid intake
• D. Teach the parents about hand hygiene

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Measles is an airborne infection, so placing the child in airborne isolation is crucial to prevent the spread of the virus to others. Airborne isolation precautions help contain infectious respiratory droplets and reduce the risk of transmission to healthcare workers, other patients, and visitors. Administering antipyretics, encouraging fluid intake, and teaching parents about hand hygiene are important aspects of care but do not directly address the prevention of the spread of measles, which requires airborne precautions.

5. A 10-year-old child with hemophilia is admitted to the hospital with joint pain and swelling. What should the healthcare provider do first?

• A. Apply ice to the affected joint
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Elevate the affected limb
• D. Administer factor VIII as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering factor VIII as prescribed is the priority intervention for a child with hemophilia experiencing joint pain and swelling. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that impairs the blood's ability to clot properly, leading to prolonged bleeding. Factor VIII replacement therapy is essential as it helps restore the missing clotting factor in patients with hemophilia, thereby aiding in clot formation and preventing further bleeding. Applying ice, administering pain medication, or elevating the limb may be supportive measures but addressing the underlying cause by providing factor VIII therapy takes precedence in managing hemophilia-related joint pain and swelling.

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