Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 17-year-old male who fell 20 feet 5 months ago while climbing the side of a cliff and has been in a sustained vegetative state since the accident. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Talk directly to the adolescent while providing care
• B. Maintain silence during care to avoid overstimulation
• C. Play soothing music in the background
• D. Limit visitors to immediate family only

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Talking directly to the adolescent is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps maintain a sense of connection and respect, even if the response is not evident. Maintaining silence may lead to isolation and hinder any potential communication attempts. Playing soothing music may not provide the personal interaction needed for connection. Limiting visitors to immediate family only may deprive the patient of diverse interactions that could be beneficial for their emotional well-being.

2. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

3. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. Yellowing of the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning signs of hepatic encephalopathy in a client with cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious complication of liver disease that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema may be present due to fluid accumulation, increased abdominal girth can indicate ascites which is common in cirrhosis, and yellowing of the skin is a typical manifestation of jaundice in liver dysfunction, all of which are important but not as immediately concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Serum glucose of 500 mg/dL
• B. Serum glucose of 600 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with DKA as it indicates metabolic acidosis, requiring immediate intervention. In DKA, the body produces excess ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. A low serum bicarbonate level is a key indicator of this acid-base imbalance. Elevated serum glucose levels are expected in DKA but are managed through insulin therapy. Serum potassium levels can fluctuate in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but a value of 5.5 mEq/L is not as immediately concerning as metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the most critical finding in this scenario is the low serum bicarbonate level.

5. A client who had a gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) evacuated 2 days ago is being monitored for choriocarcinoma. She lives in a rural area, and her husband takes the family car to work daily, leaving her without transportation during the day. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Teach the client about the use of a home pregnancy test.
• B. Schedule a weekly home visit to draw hCG values.
• C. Make a 5-week follow-up appointment with the healthcare provider.
• D. Begin chemotherapy administration during the first home visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling weekly home visits to monitor hCG levels is critical for early detection of choriocarcinoma, a potential complication of GTD. Choice A is incorrect because a home pregnancy test is not the appropriate method to monitor for choriocarcinoma. Choice C is less frequent than necessary for close monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy administration should be based on confirmed diagnosis and treatment plan, not initiated during the first home visit.

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