HESI RN
Community Health HESI Quizlet
1. The nurse is assessing an older adult client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops, covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to document this finding?
- A. Ptosis on the left eyelid.
- B. Nystagmus.
- C. Astigmatism.
- D. Exophthalmos.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Ptosis on the left eyelid.' Ptosis is the term used to describe an eyelid droop that covers a large portion of the iris, which may be caused by issues with the oculomotor nerve or eyelid muscles. Choice B, 'Nystagmus,' refers to involuntary eye movements and is not related to eyelid drooping. Choice C, 'Astigmatism,' is a refractive error affecting vision due to an irregularly shaped cornea or lens, not an eyelid condition. Choice D, 'Exophthalmos,' is a protrusion of the eyeball associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism, not eyelid drooping.
2. A primipara with a breech presentation is in the transition phase of labor. The nurse visualizes the perineum and sees the umbilical cord extruding from the introitus. In which position should the nurse place the client?
- A. Supine with the foot of the bed raised.
- B. On the left side with legs elevated.
- C. On the right side with legs elevated.
- D. Prone with head elevated.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario of a primipara with a breech presentation and a prolapsed umbilical cord, the nurse should place the client in the supine position with the foot of the bed raised (Trendelenburg position). This position helps alleviate gravitational pressure by the fetus on the cord, preventing compression and reducing the risk of cord prolapse complications. Placing the client on the left or right side with legs elevated or in a prone position with the head elevated would not be appropriate in this situation, as they do not effectively relieve the pressure on the umbilical cord.
3. A school nurse is planning a program to address bullying among students. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?
- A. Implementing a zero-tolerance policy for bullying
- B. Conducting peer mediation sessions
- C. Providing workshops on conflict resolution
- D. Promoting bystander intervention
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Promoting bystander intervention is the most effective strategy as it empowers students to take action and prevent bullying incidents. By encouraging bystanders to intervene when they witness bullying, the behavior is less likely to continue. Zero-tolerance policies may have limited effectiveness as they often focus on punishment rather than prevention. Peer mediation and conflict resolution workshops are valuable but may not directly address the immediate need for bystander intervention in bullying situations.
4. A public health nurse is developing a campaign to promote breast cancer screening. Which population should be the primary target of this campaign?
- A. women aged 20-30
- B. women aged 30-40
- C. women aged 40-50
- D. women aged 50-60
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is women aged 40-50. This age group is at an increased risk for breast cancer and should be the primary target for screening campaigns. Women in this age range are more likely to benefit from regular screening as early detection can lead to better outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because women aged 20-30 are generally not recommended for routine screening due to their lower risk, women aged 30-40 have a moderate risk but are not the primary target group, and women aged 50-60 should still be screened but targeting the 40-50 age group is more crucial for early detection and intervention.
5. The school nurse is coaching a group of high school students on ways to deal with the stress of final exams. Today the class is focusing on healthy food choices for lunch in the school cafeteria. Which option should the nurse recommend?
- A. cheeseburger on a whole wheat bun, French fries, and a large cola beverage
- B. tuna casserole with peas and corn, a fresh apple, crackers, and orange juice
- C. fruit salad with fresh berries and oranges, chicken vegetable soup, and tea
- D. chef salad with turkey, ham, and ranch dressing, apple juice, and milk
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The recommended option for managing stress during final exams is a balanced and nutritious meal. Fruit salad with fresh berries and oranges, chicken vegetable soup, and tea offer a variety of nutrients and antioxidants that can help combat stress. Option A is not ideal as it includes high-fat and high-calorie foods. Option B is a good choice, but Option C provides a wider range of nutrients and hydration. Option D is a healthy choice with a variety of proteins and vitamins, but Option C offers lighter options that may be easier to digest during stressful times.
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