Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

2. What is the most important information for a nurse to obtain when an older female client expresses not deserving to eat due to lack of money?

• A. Client's thoughts about wanting to hurt herself
• B. Medication history for antipsychotic agents
• C. Availability of family members to provide meals
• D. Community resources to provide financial aid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client's thoughts about wanting to hurt herself. When a client expresses not deserving to eat due to lack of money, it raises concerns about her mental and emotional well-being. Assessing for suicidal ideation is crucial in this situation to ensure the client's immediate safety. Options B, C, and D are not the most critical information to obtain in this scenario. While medication history, family support, and community resources are important aspects of care, in this context, the client's mental health and risk of self-harm take precedence.

3. A client with a head injury is admitted to the hospital. Which finding indicates a need for immediate intervention?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15.
• B. Pupils are equal and reactive to light.
• C. Client is drowsy but arousable.
• D. Client does not remember the events leading to the injury.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with a head injury, being drowsy but still arousable can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, which necessitates immediate intervention. This presentation may indicate a deterioration in neurological status, requiring prompt assessment and management to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of an immediate need for intervention in this scenario. A Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness; pupils being equal and reactive to light suggest intact cranial nerve function, and memory loss about the injury event is common in head injuries and does not necessarily warrant immediate intervention.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
• D. Productive cough with green sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, a productive cough with green sputum indicates a potential bacterial infection. Green sputum is commonly associated with bacterial pneumonia, which requires immediate intervention with appropriate antibiotics. Monitoring oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and heart rate are essential in COPD patients, but the presence of green sputum suggests an urgent need for targeted treatment to address the underlying infection. Oxygen saturation of 88% is concerning but may not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention in the absence of other critical symptoms. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute are within normal limits and may not be indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate intervention in this context.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.

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