Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide)
• D. Clonidine (Catapres)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario of severe hypertension (180/110 mm Hg), the nurse should prepare to administer Clonidine (Catapres), which is an antihypertensive medication commonly used to rapidly lower blood pressure in acute situations. Atenolol and Nifedipine are also antihypertensive medications, but Clonidine is more appropriate for immediate blood pressure reduction in this critical situation. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic often used for long-term management of hypertension, not for rapid lowering of severely elevated blood pressure.

2. A public health nurse is evaluating a program designed to reduce the incidence of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) among teenagers. Which outcome indicates that the program is successful?

• A. increased attendance at educational sessions on STIs
• B. higher rates of condom use among teenagers
• C. more teenagers seeking testing for STIs
• D. greater knowledge of STI prevention methods

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: higher rates of condom use among teenagers. This outcome indicates that the teenagers are adopting safer sexual practices, which can effectively reduce the incidence of STIs. Increased attendance at educational sessions (Choice A) may show interest but does not directly reflect behavior change. More teenagers seeking testing for STIs (Choice C) indicates awareness but not necessarily prevention. Greater knowledge of STI prevention methods (Choice D) is valuable but does not guarantee behavioral change like increased condom use.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation indicates that the chest tube is functioning effectively?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is the correct observation indicating effective functioning of the chest tube. This bubbling signifies that the suction system is working correctly and maintaining the desired negative pressure in the pleural space. Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber suggests an air leak, which is not a normal finding. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal chamber may indicate a blockage or lack of communication between the pleural space and the water-seal, which is not ideal. Drainage of clear, pale yellow fluid from the chest tube is a normal finding, but it does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the chest tube function.

4. A community health nurse is conducting a neighborhood discussion group about disaster planning. What information regarding transmission of anthrax should the nurse provide to the group?

• A. Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host.
• B. Mature anthrax bacteria live dormant on inanimate objects.
• C. Spores cannot survive for extended periods outside a living host.
• D. Anthrax is transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Infection is acquired when anthrax spores enter a host. Anthrax is primarily transmitted through spores entering the body, either through the skin, inhalation, or ingestion. Person-to-person transmission of anthrax is extremely rare and not a significant mode of transmission. Choices B and C are incorrect because mature anthrax bacteria do not live dormant on inanimate objects, and spores can survive for extended periods outside a living host. Choice D is incorrect as anthrax is not transmitted by respiratory droplets from person to person.

5. A client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 90 seconds. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Continue the heparin infusion as prescribed.
• B. Decrease the heparin infusion rate.
• C. Increase the heparin infusion rate.
• D. Stop the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is significantly elevated, indicating a high risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. In this case, the heparin infusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further anticoagulation and an increased bleeding risk. Notifying the healthcare provider is essential to discuss alternative anticoagulation strategies or interventions. Continuing heparin therapy without action could lead to severe bleeding complications. Decreasing or increasing the heparin infusion rate would exacerbate the risk of bleeding, making options A, B, and C incorrect.

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