Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is planning a health education workshop for a group of adolescents on the dangers of substance abuse. Which strategy is most likely to be effective?

• A. showing videos of the effects of substance abuse
• B. inviting individuals in recovery to share their stories
• C. providing statistical data on substance abuse
• D. distributing brochures on substance abuse prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inviting individuals in recovery to share their stories is the most effective strategy for educating adolescents about the dangers of substance abuse. Personal stories have a significant impact as they provide real-life examples of the consequences of substance abuse, making the information more relatable and emotionally engaging. This approach can evoke empathy, create a deeper understanding of the risks involved, and potentially deter adolescents from experimenting with substances. Showing videos of the effects of substance abuse (choice A) may be impactful, but personal narratives often have a stronger emotional connection. Providing statistical data (choice C) may not resonate as strongly with adolescents as personal stories. Distributing brochures (choice D) is informative but may not have the same emotional impact and engagement as hearing firsthand experiences.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with pulmonary edema. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Productive cough with pink, frothy sputum.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A productive cough with pink, frothy sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise and worsening of the condition. Peripheral edema (Choice A) is a manifestation of heart failure but is not as urgent as addressing pulmonary edema. Oxygen saturation of 88% (Choice B) is low and requires attention, but the pink, frothy sputum signifies acute respiratory distress. Jugular vein distention (Choice C) can be seen in heart failure, but the immediate concern in this scenario is addressing the pulmonary edema to ensure adequate gas exchange and oxygenation.

3. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

4. A homeless client with alcohol dependency will be dismissed from the emergency department in 24 hours. The nurse notes that a tuberculin skin test was prescribed by the healthcare provider. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement prior to discharge?

• A. Identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read
• B. Give the client written information about the tuberculosis test
• C. Determine if the client understands the purpose of the tuberculin test
• D. Explain to the client results should be read between 48 and 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement prior to the discharge of a homeless client with alcohol dependency who had a tuberculin skin test prescribed is to identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read. This is crucial to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. Providing written information (Choice B) is helpful but not as critical as ensuring the follow-up plan. Determining if the client understands the purpose of the test (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as ensuring the follow-up plan. Explaining when the results should be read (Choice D) is important, but the priority is to make sure the client has a plan in place for follow-up.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

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