Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

2. The occupational health nurse is completing a yearly self-evaluation. Which activity should the nurse document as an example of proficient performance criteria in professionalism?

• A. contributes money to a professional society or organization
• B. maintains chairmanship of the hospital nursing council
• C. documents the nursing process in care management
• D. develops policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because developing policy initiatives that impact occupational health and safety demonstrates leadership and proficiency in contributing to the field. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to professionalism criteria in the context of occupational health nursing. Contributing money to a professional society, maintaining chairmanship of a nursing council, or documenting the nursing process, while important, do not specifically highlight the nurse's impact on occupational health and safety through policy development.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
• B. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, suggesting possible complications like heart failure or fluid overload. Monitoring the heart rate closely and addressing any signs of heart failure promptly are crucial. A temperature of 99°F is within normal range and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is also normal. Fatigue is a common symptom in pneumonia but does not indicate an immediate need for intervention compared to the critical nature of jugular vein distention.

4. During a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?

• A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
• B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
• C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
• D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention. He has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including smoking and high cholesterol, which significantly increase his risk. Addressing these modifiable risk factors is crucial in preventing cardiovascular events. The daughter (Choice B) and mother (Choice C) also have risk factors, but the father's combination of smoking and high cholesterol places him at higher immediate risk, demanding priority intervention. The 12-year-old son (Choice D) with a normal weight and an active lifestyle has a lower risk profile and does not require immediate intervention compared to the father.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory result indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. International normalized ratio (INR) of 1.0.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 12 seconds.
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 60 seconds.
• D. International normalized ratio (INR) of 2.5.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An International Normalized Ratio (INR) of 2.5 indicates that warfarin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with atrial fibrillation. A lower INR (such as 1.0) would suggest subtherapeutic levels, risking blood clots. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are not specific to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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