HESI RN
Community Health HESI 2023
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?
- A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
- B. Nausea and vomiting.
- C. Constipation.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.
2. During a health assessment for a family with a history of cardiovascular disease, which family member should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention?
- A. a 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol
- B. a 17-year-old daughter who is overweight and inactive
- C. a 50-year-old mother with a history of hypertension
- D. a 12-year-old son who has a normal weight and is active
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The 45-year-old father who smokes and has high cholesterol should be prioritized for further evaluation and intervention. He has multiple risk factors for cardiovascular disease, including smoking and high cholesterol, which significantly increase his risk. Addressing these modifiable risk factors is crucial in preventing cardiovascular events. The daughter (Choice B) and mother (Choice C) also have risk factors, but the father's combination of smoking and high cholesterol places him at higher immediate risk, demanding priority intervention. The 12-year-old son (Choice D) with a normal weight and an active lifestyle has a lower risk profile and does not require immediate intervention compared to the father.
3. The client with liver cirrhosis needs immediate intervention for which abnormal laboratory result?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) of 14 seconds.
- B. Bilirubin of 1.2 mg/dL.
- C. Albumin of 4 g/dL.
- D. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dL indicates hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that requires immediate intervention. Ammonia is a neurotoxin that accumulates in the blood due to impaired liver function, leading to cognitive impairment and altered mental status. Monitoring and lowering ammonia levels are crucial in managing hepatic encephalopathy to prevent further neurological deterioration. Prothrombin time, bilirubin, and albumin levels are important parameters in assessing liver function and overall health status in clients with liver cirrhosis, but an elevated ammonia level poses an immediate threat to neurological function and warrants prompt attention.
4. Which intervention by the community health nurse is an example of a secondary level of prevention?
- A. providing a needle exchange program at a community mental health clinic
- B. developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus
- C. administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home
- D. initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering influenza vaccines to residents of a nursing home is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat a disease or condition in its early stages to prevent complications. In this case, administering influenza vaccines helps prevent the spread of the flu among vulnerable individuals. Choices A, B, and D are not examples of secondary prevention. Providing a needle exchange program (Choice A) is a harm reduction strategy (tertiary prevention). Developing an educational program for clients with diabetes mellitus (Choice B) focuses on health promotion and primary prevention. Initiating contact notifications for sexual partners of an HIV client (Choice D) is a measure to prevent further transmission of the disease but is more aligned with tertiary prevention.
5. A client with a history of epilepsy is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- B. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- C. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
- D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine such as lorazepam (Ativan) to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam acts quickly and effectively in stopping seizures. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is often used as a second-line agent for status epilepticus, and carbamazepine (Tegretol) is not typically indicated for the acute treatment of status epilepticus. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a pain reliever and antipyretic but is not used in the treatment of status epilepticus.
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